(公司理财)英文版罗斯公司理财习题答案C

(公司理财)英文版罗斯公司理财习题答案C
(公司理财)英文版罗斯公司理财习题答案C

CHAPTER 20

INTERNATIONAL CORPORATE FINANCE

Answers to Concepts Review and Critical Thinking Questions

1. a.The dollar is selling at a premium because it is more expensive in the forward market than in

the spot market (SFr 1.53 versus SFr 1.50).

b.The franc is expected to depreciate relative to the dollar because it will take more francs to buy

one dollar in the future than it does today.

c.Inflation in Switzerland is higher than in the United States, as are nominal interest rates.

2.The exchange rate will increase, as it will take progressively more pesos to purchase a dollar. This is

the relative PPP relationship.

3. a.The Australian dollar is expected to weaken relative to the dollar, because it will take more

A$ in the future to buy one dollar than it does today.

b.The inflation rate in Australia is higher.

c.Nominal interest rates in Australia are higher; relative real rates in the two countries are the

same.

4. A Yankee bond is most accurately described by d.

5. No. For example, if a country’s currency strengthens, imports become cheaper (good), but its exports

become more expensive for others to buy (bad). The reverse is true for currency depreciation.

6.Additional advantages include being closer to the final consumer and, thereby, saving on

transportation, significantly lower wages, and less exposure to exchange rate risk. Disadvantages include political risk and costs of supervising distant operations.

7.One key thing to remember is that dividend payments are made in the home currency. More

generally, it may be that the owners of the multinational are primarily domestic and are ultimately concerned about their wealth denominated in their home currency because, unlike a multinational, they are not internationally diversified.

8. a.False. If prices are rising faster in Great Britain, it will take more pounds to buy the same

amount of goods that one dollar can buy; the pound will depreciate relative to the dollar.

b.False. The forward market would already reflect the projected deterioration of the euro relative

to the dollar. Only if you feel that there might be additional, unanticipated weakening of the euro that isn’t reflected in forward rates today, will the forward hedge protect you against additional declines.

c.True. The market would only be correct on average, while you would be correct all the time.

9. a.American exporters: their situation in general improves because a sale of the exported goods for

a fixed number of euros will be worth more dollars.

American importers: their situation in general worsens because the purchase of the imported goods for a fixed number of euros will cost more in dollars.

b.American exporters: they would generally be better off if the British government’s intentions

result in a strengthened pound.

American importers: they would generally be worse off if the pound strengthens.

c.American exporters: they would generally be much worse off, because an extreme case of fiscal

expansion like this one will make American goods prohibitively expensive to buy, or else Brazilian sales, if fixed in cruzeiros, would become worth an unacceptably low number of dollars.

American importers: they would generally be much better off, because Brazilian goods will become much cheaper to purchase in dollars.

10.IRP is the most likely to hold because it presents the easiest and least costly means to exploit any

arbitrage opportunities. Relative PPP is least likely to hold since it depends on the absence of market imperfections and frictions in order to hold strictly.

11.It all depends on whether the forward market expects the same appreciation over the period and

whether the expectation is accurate. Assuming that the expectation is correct and that other traders do not have the same information, there will be value to hedging the currency exposure.

12.One possible reason investment in the foreign subsidiary might be preferred is if this investment

provides direct diversification that shareholders could not attain by investing on their own. Another reason could be if the political climate in the foreign country was more stable than in the home country. Increased political risk can also be a reason you might prefer the home subsidiary investment. Indonesia can serve as a great example of political risk. If it cannot be diversified away, investing in this type of foreign country will increase the systematic risk. As a result, it will raise the cost of the capital, and could actually decrease the NPV of the investment.

13.Yes, the firm should undertake the foreign investment. If, after taking into consideration all risks, a

project in a foreign country has a positive NPV, the firm should undertake it. Note that in practice, the stated assumption (that the adjustment to the discount rate has taken into consideration all political and diversification issues) is a huge task. But once that has been addressed, the net present value principle holds for foreign operations, just as for domestic.

14.If the foreign currency depreciates, the U.S. parent will experience an exchange rate loss when the

foreign cash flow is remitted to the U.S. This problem could be overcome by selling forward contracts. Another way of overcoming this problem would be to borrow in the country where the project is located.

15.False. If the financial markets are perfectly competitive, the difference between the Eurodollar rate

and the U.S. rate will be due to differences in risk and government regulation. Therefore, speculating in those markets will not be beneficial.

16.The difference between a Eurobond and a foreign bond is that the foreign bond is denominated in the

currency of the country of origin of the issuing company. Eurobonds are more popular than foreign bonds because of registration differences. Eurobonds are unregistered securities.

Solutions to Questions and Problems

NOTE: All end-of-chapter problems were solved using a spreadsheet. Many problems require multiple steps. Due to space and readability constraints, when these intermediate steps are included in this solutions manual, rounding may appear to have occurred. However, the final answer for each problem is found without rounding during any step in the problem.

Basic

https://www.360docs.net/doc/9e11351943.html,ing the quotes from the table, we get:

a.$50(€0.7870/$1) = €39.35

b.$1.2706

c.€5M($1.2706/€) = $6,353,240

d.New Zealand dollar

e.Mexican peso

f.(P11.0023/$1)($1.2186/€1) = P13.9801/€

This is a cross rate.

g.The most valuable is the Kuwait dinar. The least valuable is the Indonesian rupiah.

2. a.You would prefer £100, since:

(£100)($.5359/£1) = $53.59

b.You would still prefer £100. Using the $/£ exchange rate and the SF/£ exchange rate to find the

amount of Swiss francs £100 will buy, we get:

(£100)($1.8660/£1)(SF .8233) = SF 226.6489

https://www.360docs.net/doc/9e11351943.html,ing the quotes in the book to find the SF/£ cross rate, we find:

(SF 1.2146/$1)($0.5359/£1) = SF 2.2665/£1

The £/SF exchange rate is the inverse of the SF/£ exchange rate, so:

£1/SF .4412 = £0.4412/SF 1

3. a.F180= ¥10

4.93 (per $). The yen is selling at a premium because it is more expensive in the

forward market than in the spot market ($0.0093659 versus $0.009530).

b.F90 = $1.8587/£. The pound is selling at a discount because it is less expensive in the forward

market than in the spot market ($0.5380 versus $0.5359).

c.The value of the dollar will fall relative to the yen, since it takes more dollars to buy one yen in

the future than it does today. The value of the dollar will rise relative to the pound, because it will take fewer dollars to buy one pound in the future than it does today.

4. a.The U.S. dollar, since one Canadian dollar will buy:

(Can$1)/(Can$1.26/$1) = $0.7937

b.The cost in U.S. dollars is:

(Can$2.19)/(Can$1.26/$1) = $1.74

Among the reasons that absolute PPP doe sn’t hold are tariffs and other barriers to trade, transactions costs, taxes, and different tastes.

c.The U.S. dollar is selling at a discount, because it is less expensive in the forward market than

in the spot market (Can$1.22 versus Can$1.26).

d.The Canadian dollar is expected to appreciate in value relative to the dollar, because it takes

fewer Canadian dollars to buy one U.S. dollar in the future than it does today.

e.Interest rates in the United States are probably higher than they are in Canada.

5. a.The cross rate in ¥/£ terms is:

(¥115/$1)($1.70/£1) = ¥195.5/£1

b.The yen is quoted too low relative to the pound. Take out a loan for $1 and buy ¥115. Use the

¥115 to purchase pounds at the cross-rate, which will give you:

¥115(£1/¥185) = £0.6216

Use the pounds to buy back dollars and repay the loan. The cost to repay the loan will be:

£0.6216($1.70/£1) = $1.0568

You arbitrage profit is $0.0568 per dollar used.

6.We can rearrange the interest rate parity condition to answer this question. The equation we will use

is:

R FC = (F T– S0)/S0 + R US

Using this relationship, we find:

Great Britain: R FC = (£0.5394 – £0.5359)/£0.5359 + .038 = 4.45%

Japan: R FC = (¥104.93 – ¥106.77)/¥106.77 + .038 = 2.08%

Switzerland: R FC = (SFr 1.1980 – SFr 1.2146)/SFr 1.2146 + .038 = 2.43%

7.If we invest in the U.S. for the next three months, we will have:

$30M(1.0045)3 = $30,406,825.23

If we invest in Great Britain, we must exchange the dollars today for pounds, and exchange the pounds for dollars in three months. After making these transactions, the dollar amount we would have in three months would be:

($30M)(£0.56/$1)(1.0060)3/(£0.59/$1) = $28,990,200.05

We should invest in U.S.

https://www.360docs.net/doc/9e11351943.html,ing the relative purchasing power parity equation:

F t = S0 × [1 + (h FC– h US)]t

We find:

Z3.92 = Z3.84[1 + (h FC– h US)]3

h FC– h US = (Z3.92/Z3.84)1/3– 1

h FC– h US = .0069

Inflation in Poland is expected to exceed that in the U.S. by 0.69% over this period.

9.The profit will be the quantity sold, times the sales price minus the cost of production. The

production cost is in Singapore dollars, so we must convert this to U.S. dollars. Doing so, we find that if the exchange rates stay the same, the profit will be:

Profit = 30,000[$145 – {(S$168.50)/(S$1.6548/$1)}]

Profit = $1,295,250.18

If the exchange rate rises, we must adjust the cost by the increased exchange rate, so:

Profit = 30,000[$145 – {(S$168.50)/1.1(S$1.6548/$1)}]

Profit = $1,572,954.71

If the exchange rate falls, we must adjust the cost by the decreased exchange rate, so:

Profit = 30,000[$145 – {(S$168.50)/0.9(S$1.6548/$1)}]

Profit = $955,833.53

To calculate the breakeven change in the exchange rate, we need to find the exchange rate that make the cost in Singapore dollars equal to the selling price in U.S. dollars, so:

$145 = S$168.50/S T

S T = S$1.1621/$1

S T = –.2978 or –29.78% decline

10. a.If IRP holds, then:

F180 = (Kr 6.43)[1 + (.08 – .05)]1/2

F180 = Kr 6.5257

Since given F180 is Kr6.56, an arbitrage opportunity exists; the forward premium is too high.

Borrow Kr1 today at 8% interest. Agree to a 180-day forward contract at Kr 6.56. Convert the loan proceeds into dollars:

Kr 1 ($1/Kr 6.43) = $0.15552

Invest these dollars at 5%, ending up with $0.15931. Convert the dollars back into krone as

$0.15931(Kr 6.56/$1) = Kr 1.04506

Repay the Kr 1 loan, ending with a profit of:

Kr1.04506 – Kr1.03868 = Kr 0.00638

b.To find the forward rate that eliminates arbitrage, we use the interest rate parity condition, so:

F180 = (Kr 6.43)[1 + (.08 – .05)]1/2

F180 = Kr 6.5257

11.The international Fisher effect states that the real interest rate across countries is equal. We can

rearrange the international Fisher effect as follows to answer this question:

R US– h US = R FC– h FC

h FC = R FC + h US– R US

a.h AUS = .05 + .035 – .039

h AUS = .046 or 4.6%

b.h CAN = .07 + .035 – .039

h CAN = .066 or 6.6%

c.h TAI = .10 + .035 – .039

h TAI = .096 or 9.6%

12. a.The yen is expected to get stronger, since it will take fewer yen to buy one dollar in the future

than it does today.

b.h US– h JAP (¥129.76 – ¥131.30)/¥131.30

h US– h JAP = – .0117 or –1.17%

(1 – .0117)4– 1 = –.0461 or –4.61%

The approximate inflation differential between the U.S. and Japan is – 4.61% annually.

13. We need to find the change in the exchange rate over time, so we need to use the relative purchasing

power parity relationship:

F t = S0 × [1 + (h FC– h US)]T

Using this relationship, we find the exchange rate in one year should be:

F1 = 215[1 + (.086 – .035)]1

F1 = HUF 225.97

The exchange rate in two years should be:

F2 = 215[1 + (.086 – .035)]2

F2 = HUF 237.49

And the exchange rate in five years should be:

F5 = 215[1 + (.086 – .035)]5

F5 = HUF 275.71

https://www.360docs.net/doc/9e11351943.html,ing the interest-rate parity theorem:

(1 + R US) / (1 + R FC) = F(0,1) / S0

We can find the forward rate as:

F(0,1) = [(1 + R US) / (1 + R FC)] S0

F(0,1) = (1.13 / 1.08)$1.50/£

F(0,1) = $1.57/£

Intermediate

15.First, we need to forecast the future spot rate for each of the next three years. From interest rate and

purchasing power parity, the expected exchange rate is:

E(S T) = [(1 + R US) / (1 + R FC)]T S0

So:

E(S1) = (1.0480 / 1.0410)1 $1.22/€ = $1.2282/€

E(S2) = (1.0480 / 1.0410)2 $1.22/€ = $1.2365/€

E(S3) = (1.0480 / 1.0410)3 $1.22/€ = $1.2448/€

Now we can use these future spot rates to find the dollar cash flows. The dollar cash flow each year will be:

Year 0 cash flow = –€$12,000,000($1.22/€) = –$14,640,000.00

Year 1 cash flow = €$2,700,000($1.2282/€) = $3,316,149.86

Year 2 cash flow = €$3,500,000($1.2365/€) = $4,327,618.63

Year 3 cash flow = (€3,300,000 + 7,400,000)($1.2448/€) = $13,319,111.90

And the NPV of the project will be:

NPV = –$14,640,000 + $3,316,149.86/1.13 + $4,4327,618.63/1.132 + $13,319,111.90/1.133

NPV = $914,618.73

16. a.Implicitly, it is assumed that interest rates won’t change over the life of the project, but the

exchange rate is projected to decline because the Euroswiss rate is lower than the Eurodollar rate.

b.We can use relative purchasing power parity to calculate the dollar cash flows at each time. The

equation is:

E[S T] = (SFr 1.72)[1 + (.07 – .08)]T

E[S T] = 1.72(.99)T

So, the cash flows each year in U.S. dollar terms will be:

t SFr E[S T] US$

0 –27.0M –$15,697,674.42

1 +7.5M 1.7028 $4,404,510.22

2 +7.5M 1.6858 $4,449,000.22

3 +7.5M 1.6689 $4,493,939.62

4 +7.5M 1.6522 $4,539,332.95

5 +7.5M 1.6357 $4,585,184.79

And the NPV is:

NPV = –$15,697,674.42 + $4,404,510.22/1.13 + $4,449,000.22/1.132 + $4,493,939.62/1.133 + $4,539,332.95/1.134 + $4,585,184.79/1.135

NPV = $71,580.10

c.Rearranging the relative purchasing power parity equation to find the required return in Swiss

francs, we get:

R SFr = 1.13[1 + (.07 – .08)] – 1

R SFr = 11.87%

So, the NPV in Swiss francs is:

NPV = –SFr 27.0M + SFr 7.5M(PVIFA11.87%,5)

NPV = SFr 123,117.76

Converting the NPV to dollars at the spot rate, we get the NPV in U.S. dollars as:

NPV = (SFr 123,117.76)($1/SFr 1.72)

NPV = $71,580.10

Challenge

17. a.The domestic Fisher effect is:

1 + R US = (1 + r US)(1 + h US)

1 + r US = (1 + R US)/(1 + h US)

This relationship must hold for any country, that is:

1 + r FC = (1 + R FC)/(1 + h FC)

The international Fisher effect states that real rates are equal across countries, so:

1 + r US = (1 + R US)/(1 + h US) = (1 + R FC)/(1 + h FC) = 1 + r FC

b.The exact form of unbiased interest rate parity is:

E[S t] = F t = S0 [(1 + R FC)/(1 + R US)]t

c.The exact form for relative PPP is:

E[S t] = S0 [(1 + h FC)/(1 + h US)]t

d.For the home currency approach, we calculate the expected currency spot rate at time t as:

E[S t] = (€0.5)[1.07/1.05]t= (€0.5)(1.019)t

We then convert the euro cash flows using this equation at every time, and find the present value. Doing so, we find:

NPV = –[€2M/(€0.5)] + {€0.9M/[1.019(€0.5)]}/1.1 + {€0.9M/[1.0192(€0.5)]}/1.12 + {€0.9M/[1.0193(€0.5/$1)]}/1.13

NPV = $316,230.72

For the foreign currency approach, we first find the return in the euros as:

R FC = 1.10(1.07/1.05) – 1 = 0.121

Next, we find the NPV in euros as:

NPV = –€2M + (€0.9M)/1.121 + (€0.9M)/1.1212+ (€0.9M)/1.1213= €158,115.36

And finally, we convert the euros to dollars at the current exchange rate, which is:

NPV ($) = €158,115.36 /(€0.5/$1) = $316,230.72

罗斯《公司理财》第9版笔记和课后习题(含考研真题)详解[视频详解](风险、资本成本和资本预算)【圣才

罗斯《公司理财》第9版笔记和课后习题(含考研真题)详解[视频详解] 第13章风险、资本成本和资本预算[视频讲解] 13.1复习笔记 运用净现值法,按无风险利率对现金流量折现,可以准确评价无风险现金流量。然而,现实中的绝大多数未来现金流是有风险的,这就要求有一种能对有风险现金流进行折现的方法。确定风险项目净现值所用的折现率可根据资本资产定价模型CAPM(或套利模型APT)来计算。如果某无负债企业要评价一个有风险项目,可以运用证券市场线SML来确定项目所要求的收益率r s,r s也称为权益资本成本。 当企业既有债务融资又有权益融资时,所用的折现率应是项目的综合资本成本,即债务资本成本和权益资本成本的加权平均。 联系企业的风险贴现率与资本市场要求的收益率的原理在于如下一个简单资本预算原则:企业多余的现金,可以立即派发股利,投资者收到股利自己进行投资,也可以用于投资项目产生未来的现金流发放股利。从股东利益出发,股东会在自己投资和企业投资中选择期望收益率较高的一个。只有当项目的期望收益率大于风险水平相当的金融资产的期望收益率时,项目才可行。因此项目的折现率应该等于同样风险水平的金融资产的期望收益率。这也说明了资本市场价格信号作用。 1.权益资本成本 从企业的角度来看,权益资本成本就是其期望收益率,若用CAPM模型,股票的期望收益率为:

其中,R F是无风险利率,是市场组合的期望收益率与无风险利率之差,也称为期望超额市场收益率或市场风险溢价。 要估计企业权益资本成本,需要知道以下三个变量:①无风险利率;②市场风险溢价; ③公司的贝塔系数。 根据权益资本成本计算企业项目的贴现率需要有两个重要假设:①新项目的贝塔风险与企业风险相同;②企业无债务融资。 2.贝塔的估计 估算公司贝塔值的基本方法是利用T个观测值按照如下公式估计: 估算贝塔值可能存在以下问题:①贝塔可能随时间的推移而发生变化;②样本容量可能太小;③贝塔受财务杠杆和经营风险变化的影响。 可以通过如下途径解决上述问题:①第1个和第2个问题可通过采用更加复杂的统计技术加以解决;②根据财务风险和经营风险的变化对贝塔作相应的调整,有助于解决第3个问题;③注意同行业类似企业的平均β估计值。 根据企业自身历史数据来估算企业贝塔系数是一种常用方法,也有人认为运用整个行业的贝塔系数可以更好地估算企业的贝塔系数。有时两者计算的结果差异很大。总的来说,可以遵循下列原则:如果认为企业的经营与所在行业其他企业的经营十分类似,用行业贝塔降低估计误差。如果认为企业的经营与行业内其他企业的经营有着根本性差别,则应选择企业的贝塔。 3.贝塔的确定 前面介绍的回归分析方法估算贝塔并未阐明贝塔是由哪些因素决定的。主要存在以下三个因素:收入的周期性、经营杠杆和财务杠杆。

(公司理财)公司理财中文版第九版第三章答案

第三章财务报表分析与长期财务规划 1.由于不同行业的公司在财务比率上存在很大的差异,财务比率本身提供的信息有限,分析公司的财务比率有两种基本方法:时间趋势分析法和同类公司分析。为什么这些方法会有用呢?每种方法能够告诉你哪些关于公司财务健康状况的信息? 答:时间趋势分析描绘了公司财务状况随时间而变化的图景。通过公司本身的跨期比较分析,财务经理可以评价公司的经营、融资或投资活动的某些方面是否已经发生了变化。同类公司比较分析涉及到将某一特定公司的财务比率和经营绩效与同一行业或业务相同的其他公司进行比较。通过同类公司比较分析,财务经理可以评价公司的经营、融资或投资活动的某些方面是否越出常规,从而为调整这些比率采取恰当的行动提供指南,如果这种调整合适的话。两种方法都从财务的视角研究一个公司究竟有什么不同,但两种方法都不能告诉我们这种不同是积极正面的还是消极负面的。例如,假设一个公司的流动比率是随时间而提高,这可能意味着该公司在过去一直面临流动性问题,一直在纠正这些问题;或者它也可能意味着该公司已经在管理流动资产和负债方面变得更低效。同类公司比较分析中也存在类似的争论。一个公司的流动比率低于同类公司,也许是它在管理流动资产和负债方面更具效率,也可能是它面临流动性问题。没有哪种方法告诉我们某个比率是好还是坏。两种方法只是表明有些东西存在差异,并告诉我们去哪里寻找。 2.所谓的“同店销售”是像沃尔玛和希尔斯之类的十分分散的公司的

一项重要指标,顾名思义,分析同店销售就是比较同样的店铺或餐馆在两个不同的时间点上的销售额。为什么公司总是关注同店销售而不是总销售? 答:如果一家公司通过开设新店来不断增长,那么可以推测其总收入将上升。比较两个不同时点的总销售额可能会误导。同店销售方法只看在特定时期开设的店铺的销售额控制了这一误差。 3.为什么多数长期财务计划都从销售预测开始?或者说,为什么未来销售额是关键? 答:理由是,最终,消费是商业背后的驱动力。一个企业的资产、雇员,事实上,几乎企业经营和融资的所有方面都是直接或间接地支持销售。换种说法,一个企业对资本资产、雇员、存货以及融资的未来需求都由它的未来销售所决定。 4.本章利用Rosengarten公司说明EFN的计算,Rosengarten的ROE 约为7.3%,利润再投资率约为67%,如果你为Rosengarten计算可持续增长率,会发现它只有 5.14%,而我们在计算EFN时所使用的增长率为25%,这可能吗?(提示:有可能。如何实现?) 答:可持续增长公式的两个假设是,公司并不想出售新的股票,以及财务政策是固定的。如果公司增加外部股权,或提高其债务权益比率,它的增长速度可以比可持续增长率更高。当然,如果公司改变其股利政策,提高留成比例,或其总资产周转率提高,它的增长速度也可以快于它的销售净利率提高的速度。 5. Broslofski公司每年都维持一个正的留存比率,并保持负债权益比

罗斯公司理财题库全集

Chapter 20 Issuing Securities to the Public Multiple Choice Questions 1. An equity issue sold directly to the public is called: A. a rights offer. B. a general cash offer. C. a restricted placement. D. a fully funded sales. E. a standard call issue. 2. An equity issue sold to the firm's existing stockholders is called: A. a rights offer. B. a general cash offer. C. a private placement. D. an underpriced issue. E. an investment banker's issue. 3. Management's first step in any issue of securities to the public is: A. to file a registration form with the SEC. B. to distribute copies of the preliminary prospectus. C. to distribute copies of the final prospectus. D. to obtain approval from the board of directors. E. to prepare the tombstone advertisement. 4. A rights offering is: A. the issuing of options on shares to the general public to acquire stock. B. the issuing of an option directly to the existing shareholders to acquire stock. C. the issuing of proxies which are used by shareholders to exercise their voting rights. D. strictly a public market claim on the company which can be traded on an exchange. E. the awarding of special perquisites to management.

罗斯公司理财第九版第十章课后答案对应版

第十章:风险与收益:市场历史的启示 1. 因为公司的表现具有不可预见性。 2. 投资者很容易看到最坏的投资结果,但是确很难预测到。 3. 不是,股票具有更高的风险,一些投资者属于风险规避者,他们认为这点额外的报酬率还不至于吸引他们付出更高风险的代价。 4. 股票市场与赌博是不同的,它实际是个零和市场,所有人都可能赢。而且投机者带给市场更高的流动性,有利于市场效率。 5. 在80 年代初是最高的,因为伴随着高通胀和费雪效应。 6. 有可能,当投资风险资产报酬非常低,而无风险资产报酬非常高,或者同时出现这两种现象时就会发生这样的情况。 7. 相同,假设两公司2 年前股票价格都为P0,则两年后G 公司股票价格为 1.1*0.9* P0,而S 公司股票价格为0.9*1.1 P0,所以两个公司两年后的股价是一样的。 8. 不相同,Lake Minerals 2年后股票价格= 100(1.10)(1.10) = $121.00 而SmallTown Furniture 2年后股票价格= 100(1.25)(.95) = $118.75 9. 算数平均收益率仅仅是对所有收益率简单加总平均,它没有考虑到所有收益率组合的效果,而几何平均收益率考虑到了收益率组合的效果,所以后者比较重要。 10. 不管是否考虑通货膨胀因素,其风险溢价没有变化,因为风险溢价是风险资产收益率与无风险资产收益率的差额,若这两者都考虑到通货膨胀的因素,其差额仍然是相互抵消的。而在考虑税收后收益率就会降低,因为税后收益会降低。 11. R = [($104 – 92) + 1.45] / $92 = .1462 or 14.62% 12. Dividend yield = $1.45 / $92 = .0158 or 1.58% Capital gains yield = ($104 – 92) / $92 = .1304 or 13.04% 13. R = [($81 – 92) + 1.45] / $92 = –.1038 or –10.38% Dividend yield = $1.45 / $92 = .0158 or 1.58% Capital gains yield = ($81 – 92) / $92 = –.1196 or –11.96% 14.

罗斯公司理财题库全集

Chapter 30 Financial Distress Multiple Choice Questions 1. Financial distress can be best described by which of the following situations in which the firm is forced to take corrective action? A. Cash payments are delayed to creditors. B. The market value of the stock declines by 10%. C. The firm's operating cash flow is insufficient to pay current obligations. D. Cash distributions are eliminated because the board of directors considers the surplus account to be low. E. None of the above. 2. Insolvency can be defined as: A. not having cash. B. being illiquid. C. an inability to pay one's debts. D. an inability to increase one's debts. E. the present value of payments being less than assets. 3. Stock-based insolvency is a: A. income statement measurement. B. balance sheet measurement. C. a book value measurement only. D. Both A and C. E. Both B and C. 4. Flow-based insolvency is: A. a balance sheet measurement. B. a negative equity position. C. when operating cash flow is insufficient to meet current obligations. D. inability to pay one's debts. E. Both C and D.

罗斯公司理财题库全集

Chapter 13 Risk, Cost of Capital, and Capital Budgeting Answer Key Multiple Choice Questions 1. The weighted average of the firm's costs of equity, preferred stock, and after tax debt is the: A. reward to risk ratio for the firm. B. expected capital gains yield for the stock. C. expected capital gains yield for the firm. D. portfolio beta for the firm. E. weighted average cost of capital (WACC). Difficulty level: Easy Topic: WACC Type: DEFINITIONS 2. If the CAPM is used to estimate the cost of equity capital, the expected excess market return is equal to the: A. return on the stock minus the risk-free rate. B. difference between the return on the market and the risk-free rate. C. beta times the market risk premium. D. beta times the risk-free rate. E. market rate of return. Difficulty level: Easy Topic: CAPM Type: DEFINITIONS

公司理财-罗斯课后习题答案

第一章 1.在所有权形式的公司中,股东是公司的所有者。股东选举公司的董事会,董事会任命该公司的管理层。企业的所有权和控制权分离的组织形式是导致的代理关系存在的主要原因。管理者可能追求自身或别人的利益最大化,而不是股东的利益最大化。在这种环境下,他们可能因为目标不一致而存在代理问题。 2.非营利公司经常追求社会或政治任务等各种目标。非营利公司财务管理的目标是获取并有效使用资金以最大限度地实现组织的社会使命。 3.这句话是不正确的。管理者实施财务管理的目标就是最大化现有股票的每股价值,当前的股票价值反映了短期和长期的风险、时间以及未来现金流量。 4.有两种结论。一种极端,在市场经济中所有的东西都被定价。因此所有目标都有一个最优水平,包括避免不道德或非法的行为,股票价值最大化。另一种极端,我们可以认为这是非经济现象,最好的处理方式是通过政治手段。一个经典的思考问题给出了这种争论的答案:公司估计提高某种产品安全性的成本是30美元万。然而,该公司认为提高产品的安全性只会节省20美元万。请问公司应该怎么做呢” 5.财务管理的目标都是相同的,但实现目标的最好方式可能是不同的,因为不同的国家有不同的社会、政治环境和经济制度。 6.管理层的目标是最大化股东现有股票的每股价值。如果管理层认为能提高公司利润,使股价超过35美元,那么他们应该展开对恶意收购的斗争。如果管理层认为该投标人或其它未知的投标人将支付超过每股35美元的价格收购公司,那么他们也应该展开斗争。然而,如果管理层不能增加企业的价值,并且没有其他更高的投标价格,那么管理层不是在为股东的最大化权益行事。现在的管理层经常在公司面临这些恶意收购的情况时迷失自己的方向。 7.其他国家的代理问题并不严重,主要取决于其他国家的私人投资者占比重较小。较少的私人投资者能减少不同的企业目标。高比重的机构所有权导致高学历的股东和管理层讨论决策风险项目。此外,机构投资者比私人投资者可以根据自己的资源和经验更好地对管理层实施有效的监督机制。 { 8.大型金融机构成为股票的主要持有者可能减少美国公司的代理问题,形成更有效率的公司控制权市场。但也不一定能。如果共同基金或者退休基金的管理层并不关心的投资者的利益,代理问题可能仍然存在,甚至有可能增加基金和投资者之间的代理问题。(3)就像市场需求其他劳动力一样,市场也需求首席执行官,首席执行官的薪酬是由市

罗斯公司理财重点知识整理

第一章导论 1. 公司目标:为所有者创造价值公司价值在于其产生现金流能力。 2. 财务管理的目标:最大化现有股票的每股现值。 3. 公司理财可以看做对一下几个问题进行研究: 1. 资本预算:公司应该投资什么样的长期资产。 2. 资本结构:公司如何筹集所需要的资金。 3. 净运营资本管理:如何管理短期经营活动产生的现金流。 4. 公司制度的优点:有限责任,易于转让所有权,永续经营。缺点:公司税对股东的双重课税。 第二章会计报表与现金流量 资产 = 负债 + 所有者权益(非现金项目有折旧、递延税款) EBIT(经营性净利润) = 净销售额 - 产品成本 - 折旧EBITDA = EBIT + 折旧及摊销 现金流量总额CF(A) = 经营性现金流量 - 资本性支出 - 净运营资本增加额 = CF(B) + CF(S) 经营性现金流量OCF = 息税前利润 + 折旧 - 税 资本性输出 = 固定资产增加额 + 折旧 净运营资本 = 流动资产 - 流动负债 第三章财务报表分析与财务模型 1. 短期偿债能力指标(流动性指标) 流动比率 = 流动资产/流动负债(一般情况大于一) 速动比率 = (流动资产 - 存货)/流动负债(酸性实验比率) 现金比率 = 现金/流动负债 流动性比率是短期债权人关心的,越高越好;但对公司而言,高流动性比率意味着流动性好,或者现金等短期资产运用效率低下。对于一家拥有强大借款能力的公司,看似较低的流动性比率可能并非坏的信号 2. 长期偿债能力指标(财务杠杆指标) 负债比率 = (总资产 - 总权益)/总资产 or (长期负债 + 流动负债)/总资产 权益乘数 = 总资产/总权益 = 1 + 负债权益比 利息倍数 = EBIT/利息 现金对利息的保障倍数(Cash coverage radio) = EBITDA/利息 3. 资产管理或资金周转指标 存货周转率 = 产品销售成本/存货存货周转天数= 365天/存货周转率 应收账款周转率 = (赊)销售额/应收账款 总资产周转率 = 销售额/总资产 = 1/资本密集度 4. 盈利性指标 销售利润率 = 净利润/销售额 资产收益率ROA = 净利润/总资产 权益收益率ROE = 净利润/总权益 5. 市场价值度量指标 市盈率 = 每股价格/每股收益EPS 其中EPS = 净利润/发行股票数 市值面值比 = 每股市场价值/每股账面价值 企业价值EV = 公司市值 + 有息负债市值 - 现金EV乘数 = EV/EBITDA 6. 杜邦恒等式 ROE = 销售利润率(经营效率)x总资产周转率(资产运用效率)x权益乘数(财杠) ROA = 销售利润率x总资产周转率 7. 销售百分比法 假设项目随销售额变动而成比例变动,目的在于提出一个生成预测财务报表的快速实用方法。是根据资金各个项目与销售收入总额的依存关系,按照计划销售额的增长情况预测需要相应追加多少资金的方法。 d = 股利支付率 = 现金股利/净利润(b + d = 1) b = 留存比率 = 留存收益增加额/净利润 T = 资本密集率 L = 权益负债比 PM = 净利润率 外部融资需要量EFN(对应不同增长率) = ?销售额 销售额 ×(资产?自发增长负债) ?PM×预计销售额×(1?d) 8. 融资政策与增长 内部增长率:在没有任何外部融资的情况下公司能实 现的最大增长率ROA×b 1?ROA×b 可持续增长率:不改变财务杠杆的情况下,仅利用内 部股权融资所..率ROE×b 1?ROE×b 即无外部股权融资且L不变 P×b×(L+1) T?P×b×(L+1) 可持续增长率取决于一下四个因素: 1. 销售利润率:其增加提高公司内部生成资金能力,提高可持续增长率。 2. 股利政策:降低股利支付率即提高留存比,增加内部股权资金,提高..。 3. 融资政策:提高权益负债比即提高财务杠杆,获得额外债务融资,提高..。 4. 总资产周转率:提高即使每单位资产带来更多销售额,同时降低新资产的需求.. 结论:若不打算出售新权益,且上述四因素不变,该

罗斯公司理财题库cha16

Chapter 16 Capital Structure: Basic Concepts Multiple Choice Questions 1. The use of personal borrowing to change the overall amount of financial leverage to which an individual is exposed is called: A. homemade leverage. B. dividend recapture. C. the weighted average cost of capital. D. private debt placement. E. personal offset. 2. The proposition that the value of the firm is independent of its capital structure is called: A. the capital asset pricing model. B. MM Proposition I. C. MM Proposition II. D. the law of one price. E. the efficient markets hypothesis. 3. The proposition that the cost of equity is a positive linear function of capital structure is called: A. the capital asset pricing model. B. MM Proposition I. C. MM Proposition II. D. the law of one price. E. the efficient markets hypothesis. 4. The tax savings of the firm derived from the deductibility of interest expense is called the: A. interest tax shield. B. depreciable basis. C. financing umbrella. D. current yield. E. tax-loss carry forward savings.

公司理财罗斯课后习题答案

公司理财罗斯课后习题 答案 集团标准化工作小组 [Q8QX9QT-X8QQB8Q8-NQ8QJ8-M8QMN]

第一章 1.在所有权形式的公司中,股东是公司的所有者。股东选举公司的董事会,董事会任命该公司的管理层。企业的所有权和控制权分离的组织形式是导致的代理关系存在的主要原因。管理者可能追求自身或别人的利益最大化,而不是股东的利益最大化。在这种环境下,他们可能因为目标不一致而存在代理问题。 2.非营利公司经常追求社会或政治任务等各种目标。非营利公司财务管理的目标是获取并有效使用资金以最大限度地实现组织的社会使命。 3.这句话是不正确的。管理者实施财务管理的目标就是最大化现有股票的每股价值,当前的股票价值反映了短期和长期的风险、时间以及未来现金流量。 4.有两种结论。一种极端,在市场经济中所有的东西都被定价。因此所有目标都有一个最优水平,包括避免不道德或非法的行为,股票价值最大化。另一种极端,我们可以认为这是非经济现象,最好的处理方式是通过政治手段。一个经典的思考问题给出了这种争论的答案:公司估计提高某种产品安全性的成本是30美元万。然而,该公司认为提高产品的安全性只会节省20美元万。请问公司应该怎么做呢” 5.财务管理的目标都是相同的,但实现目标的最好方式可能是不同的,因为不同的国家有不同的社会、政治环境和经济制度。 6.管理层的目标是最大化股东现有股票的每股价值。如果管理层认为能提高公司利润,使股价超过35美元,那么他们应该展开对恶意收购的斗争。如果管理层认为该投标人或其它未知的投标人将支付超过每股35美元的价格收购公司,那么他们也应该展开斗争。然而,如果管理层不能增加企业的价值,并且没有其他更高的投标价格,那么管理层不是在为股东的最大化权益行事。现在的管理层经常在公司面临这些恶意收购的情况时迷失自己的方向。 7.其他国家的代理问题并不严重,主要取决于其他国家的私人投资者占比重较小。较少的私人投资者能减少不同的企业目标。高比重的机构所有权导致高学历的股东和管理层讨论决策风险项目。此外,机构投资者比私人投资者可以根据自己的资源和经验更好地对管理层实施有效的监督机制。 8.大型金融机构成为股票的主要持有者可能减少美国公司的代理问题,形成更有效率的公司控制权市场。但也不一定能。如果共同基金或者退休基金的管理层并不关心的投资者的利益,代理问题可能仍然存在,甚至有可能增加基金和投资者之间的代理问题。

罗斯公司理财题库全

Chapter 21 Leasing Multiple Choice Questions 1.In a lease arrangement, the owner of the asset is: A.the lesser. B.the lessee. C.the lessor. D.the leaser. E.None of the above. 2.In a lease arrangement, the user of the asset is: A.the lesser. B.the lessee. C.the lessor. D.the leaser. E.None of the above. 3.Which of the following would not be a characteristic of a financial lease? A.They are not usually fully amortized. B.They usually do not have maintenance necessary for the leased assets. C.They usually do not include a cancellation option. D.The lessee usually has the right to renew the lease at expiration. E.All of the above are characteristics of financial leases.

4.An independent leasing company supplies ___________ leases versus the manufacturer who supplies ________________ leases. A.leveraged; direct B.sales and leaseback; sales-type C.capital; sales-type D.direct; sales-type E.None of the above

罗斯公司理财答案第六版(英文)

Chapter 2: Accounting Statements and Cash Flow 2.1 Assets Current assets Cash $ 4,000 Accounts receivable 8,000 Total current assets $ 12,000 Fixed assets Machinery $ 34,000 Patents 82,000 Total fixed assets $116,000 Total assets $128,000 Liabilities and equity Current liabilities Accounts payable $ 6,000 Taxes payable 2,000 Total current liabilities $ 8,000 Long-term liabilities Bonds payable $7,000 Stockholders equity Common stock ($100 par) $ 88,000 Capital surplus 19,000 Retained earnings 6,000 Total stockholders equity $113,000 Total liabilities and equity $128,000 2.2 One year ago Today Long-term debt $50,000,000 $50,000,000 Preferred stock 30,000,000 30,000,000 Common stock 100,000,000 110,000,000 Retained earnings 20,000,000 22,000,000 Total $200,000,000 $212,000,000 2.3 Income Statement $500,000 Less: Cost of goods sold $200,000 Administrative expenses 100,000 300,000 Earnings before interest and taxes $200,000 Less: Interest expense 50,000 Earnings before Taxes $150,000 Taxes 51,000 Net income $99,000

公司理财罗斯中文版17

第17章 财务杠杆和资本结构政策 ◆本章复习与自测题 17.1 EBIT和EPS 假设BDJ公司已经决定进行一项资本重组,它涉及到将现有的8 000万美元债务增加到12 500万美元。债务的利率是9%,并且预期不会改变。公司目前有1 000万股流通在外,每股价格是45美元。如果预期重组可以提高ROE,那么,BDJ的管理当局必定预期EBIT至少达到什么水平?解答时不考虑税。 17.2 MM第二定理(无税) Habitat公司的WACC是16%,债务成本是13%。如果Habitat的债务权益率是2,它的权益资本成本是多少?解答时不考虑税。 17.3 MM第一定理(有公司税) Gypco公司预期永远都有每年10 000美元的EBIT。Gypco可以以7%的利率借款。假设Gypco目前没有债务,它的权益成本是17%。如果公司的税率是35%,公司的价值是多少?如果Gypco借入15 000美元,并用它来回购股票,公司的价值是多少? ◆本章复习与自测题解答 17.1 要解答这个问题,我们可以计算临界EBIT。在超过这一点的任何EBIT上,提高财务杠杆都将提高EPS。在原有 的资本结构下,利息费用是8 000万美元×0.09 = 720万美元。因为有1 000万股股票,因此,不考虑税,EPS为:(EBIT-720万美元)/1 000万。 在新的资本结构下,利息费用是:12 500万美元×0.09 = 1 125万美元。并且,债务增加了4 500万美元。这个金额足够买回4 500万美元/45 = 100万股股票,剩下900万股流通在外。因此,EPS是:(EBIT -1 125万美元)/900万。 既然我们知道如何计算这两种情况下的EPS。我们假定它们彼此相等,求出临界EBIT: (EBIT -720万美元)/1 000万= (EBIT-1 125万美元)/900万 (EBIT -720万美元) = 1.11×(EBIT-1 125万美元) EBIT = 4 770万美元 可以验证,在两种情况下,当EBIT是4 770万美元时,EPS都是4.05美元。 17.2 根据MM第二定理(无税),权益成本是: R E = R A + (R A -R D )×(D/E)= 16% + (16% -13%)×2 = 22% 17.3 在没有公司税的情况下,Gypco的WACC是17%。这也是不利用杠杆的公司的资本成本。税后现金流量是:10 000美元×(1-0.35) = 6 500美元,因此,价值就是:V U = 6 500美元/0.17 = 38 235美元。 发行债务之后,Gypco的价值将是原来的38 235美元加上税盾的现值T C ×D,也就是0.35×15 000美元= 5 250美元。因

公司理财罗斯中文版14

第14章 期权与公司理财 ◆本章复习与自测题 14.1 看涨期权的价值 Nantucket公司的股票目前以每股25美元的价格出售。1年后,股票价格将要么是20美元,要么是30美元。1年后到期的国库券支付10%的利息。执行价格为20美元的看涨期权的价值是多少?执行价格为26美元的呢? 14.2 可转换债券 Old Cycle公司(OCC)是《古代钢铁》(Ancient Iron)杂志出版商,它发行的可转换债券目前在市场上的售价为950美元。如果持有者选择转换,则每1张债券可以交换100股股票。 债券的利息为7%,逐年支付,债券将在10年后到期。OCC的债务属于BBB级。这个级别的债务的标价收益率为12%。 OCC的股票正以每股7美元的价格交易。 债券的转换比率是多少?转换价格呢?转换溢价呢?债券的底线价值是多少?它的期权价值是多少? ◆本章复习与自测题解答 14.1 执行价格为20美元时,期权不可能出现虚值(如果股票价格为20美元,它将实现实值)。我们可以通过将20美元 的现值投资于国库券并购买包含1股的看涨期权来复制股票的价值。购买国库券将花费20美元/1.1 = 18.18美元。 如果股票最终的价格为20美元,看涨期权的价值将为0,而国库券将值20美元。如果股票最终的价格为30美元,国库券仍然能偿付20美元,而期权的价值将为30美元-20美元= 10美元,所以组合的价值将为30美元。因为这个国库券和看涨期权的组合实际上复制了股票的回报,所以它的价值必须是20美元,否则就有套利的可能。利用本章中的符号,我们可以这样计算看涨期权的价值: S 0= C + E/(1 + R f ) 25美元= C + 18.18美元 C = 6.82美元 当执行价格为26美元时,我们从按较低的股票价格的现值投资于国库券着手。它保证我们在股票价格为20美元时能有20美元。如果股票价格是30美元,那么期权的价值为30美元-26美元= 4美元。我们从国库券中获得20美元,所以我们需要从期权中获得10美元以便与股票相配比。因为在这种情况下每包含1股的期权的价值是4美元,我们需要购买包含10美元/4美元= 2.5股的看涨期权。请注意可能的股票价格之间的差额(?S)是10美元,可能的期权价格之间的差额(?C)是4美元,因此?S/?C= 2.5。 为了完成计算,我们注意到要防止套利,20美元的现值加上包含2.5股的期权的价值必须是20美元,因此: 25美元= 2.5×C +20美元/1.1 C = 6.82美元/2.5 = 2.73美元

罗斯公司理财题库全集

Chapter 26 Short-Term Finance and Planning Multiple Choice Questions 1.The length of time between the acquisition of inventory and the collection of cash from receivables is called the: A.operating cycle. B.inventory period. C.accounts receivable period. D.accounts payable period. E.cash cycle. 2.The length of time between the acquisition of inventory and its sale is called the: A.operating cycle. B.inventory period. C.accounts receivable period. D.accounts payable period. E.cash cycle. 3.The length of time between the sale of inventory and the collection of cash from receivables is called the: A.operating cycle. B.inventory period. C.accounts receivable period. D.accounts payable period. E.cash cycle.

罗斯《公司理财》(第11版)笔记和课后习题详解

罗斯《公司理财》(第11版)笔记和课后习题详解 来自公众号精研学习网 第1篇概论 第1章公司理财导论 1.1复习笔记 公司的首要目标——股东财富最大化决定了公司理财的目标。公司理财研究的是稀缺资金如何在企业和市场内进行有效配置,它是在股份有限公司已成为现代企业制度最主要组织形式的时代背景下,就公司经营过程中的资金运动进行预测、组织、协调、分析和控制的一种决策与管理活动。从决策角度来讲,公司理财的决策内容包括投资决策、筹资决策、股利决策和净流动资金决策;从管理角度来讲,公司理财的管理职能主要是指对资金筹集和资金投放的管理。公司理财的基本内容包括:投资决策(资本预算)、融资决策(资本结构)、短期财务管理(营运资本)。 1资产负债表 资产负债表是总括反映企业某一特定日期财务状况的会计报表,它是根据资产、负债和所有者权益之间的相互关系,按照一定的分类标准和一定的顺序,把企业一定日期的资产、负债和所有者权益各项目予以适当排列,并对日常工作中形成的大量数据进行高度浓缩整理后编制而成的。资产负债表可以反映资本预算、资本支出、资本结构以及经营中的现金流量管理等方面的内容。 2资本结构 资本结构是指企业各种资本的构成及其比例关系,它有广义和狭义之分。广义资本结构,亦称财务结构,指企业全部资本的构成,既包括长期资本,也包括短期资本(主要指短期债务资本)。狭义资本结构,主要指企业长期资本的构成,而不包括短期资本。通常人们将资本结构表示为债务资本与权益资本的比例关系(D/E)或债务资本在总资本中的构成(D/A)。准确地讲,企业的资本结构应定义为有偿负债与所有者权益的比例。 资本结构是由企业采用各种筹资方式筹集资本形成的。筹资方式的选择及组合决定着企业资本结构及其变化。资本结构是企业筹资决策的核心问题。企业应综合考虑影响资本结构的因素,运用适当方法优化资本结构,从而实现最佳资本结构。资本结构优化有利于降低资本成本,获取财务杠杆利益。 3财务经理 财务经理是公司管理团队中的重要成员,其主要职责是通过资本预算、融资和资产流动性管理为公司创造价值。 【例1.1】公司财务经理的责任是增加()。[清华大学2014金融硕士] A.公司规模 B.公司增长速度 C.经理人的能力 D.股东权益价值 【答案】D查看答案

{财务管理公司理财}罗斯公司理财第八九版中文课后习题答案

{财务管理公司理财}罗斯公司理财第八九版中文课后习题答案

理层并不关心的投资者的利益,代理问题可能仍然存在,甚至有可能增加基金和投资者之间的代理问题。 (3)就像市场需求其他劳动力一样,市场也需求首席执行官,首席执行官的薪酬是由市场决定的。这同样适用于运动员和演员。首席执行官薪酬大幅度增长的一个主要原因是现在越来越多的公司实行股票报酬,这样的改革是为了更好的协调股东和管理者的利益。这些报酬有时被认为仅仅对股票价格上涨的回报,而不是对管理能力的奖励。或许在将来,高管薪酬仅用来奖励特别的能力,即,股票价格的上涨增加了超过一般的市场。 10.最大化现在公司股票的价格和最大化未来股票价格是一样的。股票的价值取决于公司未来所有的现金流量。从另一方面来看,支付大量的现金股利给股东,股票的预期价格将会上升。 第二章 1.正确。所有的资产都可以以某种价格转换为现金。但是提及流动资产,假定该资产转换为现金时可达到或接近其市场价值是很重要的。 2.按公认会计原则中配比准则的要求,收入应与费用相配比,这样,在收入发生或应计的时候,即使没有现金流量,也要在利润表上报告。注意,这种方式是不正确的;但是会计必须这么做。 3.现金流量表最后一栏数字表明了现金流量的变化。这个数字对于分析一家公司并没有太大的作用。 4.两种现金流量主要的区别在于利息费用的处理。会计现金流量将利息作为营运现金流量,而财务现金流量将利息作为财务现金流量。会计现金流量的逻辑是,利息在利润表的营运阶段出现,因此利息是营运现金流量。事实上,

利息是财务费用,这是公司对负债和权益的选择的结果。比较这两种现金流量,财务现金流量更适合衡量公司业绩。 5.市场价值不可能为负。想象某种股票价格为-20美元。这就意味着如果你订购100股的股票,你会损失两万美元的支票。你会想要买多少这种股票?根据企业和个人破产法,个人或公司的净值不能为负,这意味着负债不能超过资产的市场价值。 6.比如,作为一家成功并且飞速发展的公司,资本支出是巨大的,可能导致负的资产现金流量。一般来说,最重要的问题是资本使用是否恰当,而不是资产的现金流量是正还是负。 7.对于已建立的公司出现负的经营性现金流量可能不是好的表象,但对于刚起步的公司这种现象是很正常的。 8.例如,如果一个公司的库存管理变得更有效率,一定数量的存货需要将会下降。如果该公司可以提高应收帐款回收率,同样可以降低存货需求。一般来说,任何导致期末的NWC相对与期初下降的事情都会有这样的作用。负净资本性支出意味着资产的使用寿命比购买时长。 9.如果公司在某一特定时期销售股票比分配股利的数额多,公司对股东的现金流量是负的。如果公司借债超过它支付的利息和本金,对债权人的现金流量就是负的。 10.那些核销仅仅是会计上的调整。 11.Ragsdale公司的利润表如下

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