厦门大学英语专业考研真题

厦门大学2004年招收攻读硕士学位研究生

入学考试试题

招生专业英语语言文学考试课程阅读及英美文学、语言学

417

研究方向_________________

注意：答案必须标明题号，按序写在专用答题纸上，写在本试卷上或草稿纸上者一律不给分。

Write down your answers to all the questions in this test in separate blank answer sheets provided at your test center.

Part One Reading Comprehension 70 points

Directions: Each passage is followed by questions based on its content. After reading the passage, choose the best answer to each question. Answer all questions following the passage on the basis of what is stated or implied in that passage.

Passage 1

The tap dancer, like the flamenco performer, is basically an improviser. Thus looking at tap one wants to savor the personality and inventiveness of the individual. When Bill Robinson danced in the movies, his technical skill and sophisticated rhythms could be heard as well as seen. The Nicholas Brothers ran up walls or the proscenium arch of the theater or jumped off platforms and landed in splits on the floor. Peg Leg Bates, who had lost a leg, made a specialty out of dancing with his wooden leg. Sandman Sims scattered sand on the floor (as Fred Astaire did in one of his films) and tapped ever so softly, slid and turned in dances as soothing as lullabies.

1. What does the passage mainly discuss?

(A) The styles of various tap dancers

(B) The structure of the modern dance theater

(C) The difference between flamenco and tap dancing

(D) The use of dance in certain movie productions

2. According to the passage, in what way is a flamenco dancer similar to a tap dancer?

(A) Both perform the same kinds of steps (B) Both rely on individual inventiveness

(C) Both are trained in classical techniques (D) Both make very little noise

3. An acrobatic style of dancing was most closely associated with which of the follo wing

performers?

(A) Peg Leg Bates (B) Bill Robinson

(C) The Nicholas Brothers (D) Sims and Astaire

4. Which two dancers used sand in their routines?

(A) Robinson and Sims (B) The Nicholas Brothers (C) Bates and Robinson (D) Sims

and Astaire

5. The author implies which of the following about tap dancing?

(A) It is more complex than flamenco dancing

(B) It is meant to be heard as well as seen

(C) It became popular primarily because of the movies

(D) It should be performed by at least two people.

Passage 2

The science of meteorology is concerned with the study of the structure, state, and

behavior of the atmosphere. The subject may be approached from several directions, but the scene cannot be fully appreciated from any advantage point. Different views must be integrated to give perspective to the whole picture.One may consider the condition of the atmosphere at a given moment and attempt to predict changes from that condition over a period of a few hours to a few days ahead. This approach is covered by the branch of the science called synoptic（天气的）meteorology.Synoptic meteorology is the scientific basis of the technique of weather forecasting by means of the preparation and analysis of weather maps

and aerological diagram. The practical importance of the numerous applications of weather forecasting cannot be overestimated. In serving the needs of shipping, aviation, agriculture, industry, and many other interests and fields of human activity with accurate weather warnings and professional forecast advice, great benefits are reaped in the form of the saving of human life and property and in economic advantages of various kinds. One important purpose of the science of meteorology is constantly to strive, through advanced study and research, to increase our knowledge of the atmosphere with the aim of improving the accuracy of weather forecasts. The tools needed to advance our knowledge in this way are the disciplines of mathematics and physics applied to solve meteorological problems. The use of these tools forms that branch of the science called dynamic meteorology. 6. Which of the following is the best title for the passage? A) The Limitations of Meteorological Forecasting B) New Advances in Synoptic Meteorology C) Approaches to the Science of Meteorology D) The Basics of Dynamic Meteorology

7. The prediction of synoptic meteorologists are directly based on the____

(A) application of the physical sciences (B) preparation and study of weather maps

(C) anticipated needs of industry (D) observations of commercial airline pilots

8. Which of the following is NOT referred to by the author as a field whose needs are served by weather forecasting?A) Transportation. B) Manufacturing.C) Farming.

D) Sports.

9. The author implies that increased accuracy in weather forecasting will lead to____.

A) more funds allocated to meteorological research B) greater protection of human life C) a higher number of professional forecasters D) less-specialized forms of synoptic meteorology

10. Which of the following statements best describes the organization of the third

paragraph of the passage?A) A procedure is explained and its importance is emphasized.B) Two contrasting views of a problem are presented.C) Recent scientific advancements are outlined in order of importance.D) A problem is examined and possible solutions are given.

11. In the last sentence of the passage, the phrase “these tools” r efers to____.A)

weather forecasts B) meteorological problems C) mathematics and physics D) economic advantage

Passage 3

There are three basic ways in which individual economic units interact with one another. They are the market system, the administered system, and the traditional system. In a market system, individual economic units are free to interact among each other in the market place. Transactions may take place through barter or money exchange. In a barter

economy, real goods such as automobiles, shoes, and pizzas are traded against each other. Obviously, finding somebody who wants to trade an old car in exchange for a sailboat may not always be an easy task. Hence the introduction of money as a medium of exchange eases transactions considerably.An alternative to the market system is administered control by some agency over all transactions. This agency will issue laws or commands as to how much each goods and service should be produced, exchanged, and consumed by each economic unit. Central planning may be one way of administering such an economy. The central plan drawn up by the government shows the amount of each commodity produced by the various firms and distributed to different households for consumption.In a traditional society, production and consumption patterns are governed by tradition. Each person′s place with the economic system is fixed by parentage, religion, and custom. Transactions take place on the basis of tradition, too. People belonging to a certain group or caste may have an obligation to care for other persons, provide them with food and shelter, care for their health,and provide for their education. Clearly, in a system where every decision is made on the basis of tradition alone progress may be difficult to achieve.

12. What is the main purpose of the passage?A）To explain the science of economics.B）To outline types of economic systems.C）To argue for the superiority of one economic system.D）To compare barter and money exchange markets.13. In the second paragraph, by which of the following could the word "real" best be replaced?A）High quality.B）Concrete.C）Utter.D）Essential.

14. According to the passage, a barter economy can lead to A）rapid speed of transactions B）misunderstandings C）inflation D）difficulties for the traders 15. According to the passage who has the greatest degree of control on an administered system?A）Individual households.B）Small businesses.C）Major companies. D）The government.

Passage 4

What is the future for cities? Why does one inner-city neighborhood become a slum and another a high-class district? Why does one city attract new shopper and visitors while another languishes?

Camden, New Jersey, displays the strong contrast that characterize American urban areas. The central city of Camden houses an isolated underclass., while suburban Camden County prospers. The population of the city of Camden has declined from 117,000 in 1960 to less than 80,000 today. Nearly 85 percent of the city’s residents are black and Hispanic, while the white population has declined from 90,000 in 1960 to 10,000 today. Only 1 percent of the households remaining have annual incomes of more than $50,000, compared with 20 percent in the rest of the country and 10 percent among all black households.

More than 40 percent of Camden’s residents are under eighteen, closer to the level found in developing countries than to eh rest of the United States. Job prospects are not promising for these young people, because more than half have left school without obtaining a high-school diploma. In the past, Camden’s youths could find jobs in factories that produced Campbell’s soups, Esterbrook pens, and RCA Victor records, radios, and televisions, but the city has lost 90 percent of its industrial jobs. The

Esterbrook and Campbell factories in Camden are closed, though Campbell’s corporate offices remain: General Electric now operates the former RCA factory but with a labor force at only 15 percent of the level during the 1960s. Camden’s unemployment rate is more than twice the national average.

As Camden’s population and industries decline, few shops have enough customers to remain open. The city once had thirteen movie theaters, but none are left. The murder rate soared after gangs carved up the city into districts during the mid-1980s to control cocaine trafficking.

Meanwhile, Camden County – excluding the city –has grown from 275,000 in 1960 to more than 400,000 today. Cherry Hill has more than 75,000 residents today, compared to less than 10,000 in 1960, and will surpass Camden as the largest city in the county before the end of the decade. About 85 percent of Cherry Hill’s high-school graduates go on to college. Cherry Hill has attracted so many new jobs that the major obstacles to further economic growth is a shortage of qualified workers.

Camden’s mismatch between the locations of people, jobs, resources, and services exemplifies the urban crisis throughout the United States, as well as in other countries. Geographers help us to understand why these patterns arise, and what be done about them.

16. Which of the following is NOT TRUE?

A）Camden County is larger than the city of Camden.

B）Cherry Hill’s economy is sluggish C）The white people have moved to the suburbs. D）General Electric now employs less workers than it used to.

17. What is the author most likely to do in the following section?

A）Elaborating on geographical patterns of other areas.

B）Quoting government policies in favor of her view.

C）Highlighting statistics in support of her argument.

D）Proposing possible solutions to the problem.

Passage 5

For a long time we have worked hard at isolating the individual family. This has increased the mobility of individuals; and by encouraging young families to break away from older generations and the home community, we have burdened every small family with tremendous responsibilities once shared within three generations and among a large number of people –the nurturing of small children, the initiation of adolescents into adulthood, and care of the sick and disabled and the protection of the aged. What we have failed to realize to realize is that even as we have separated the single family from the larger society, we have expected each couple to take on a range of obligations that traditionally have been shared within a family and a wilder community.

So all over the world there are millions of families left alone, as it were, each in its own box –parents faced with the specter of what may happen if either one gets sick, children fearful that their parents may end their quarrels with divorce, and empty-handed old people without any role in the life of the next generation.

Then, having reduced little by little to almost nothing the relationship between families the community, when families get into trouble because they cannot accomplish the impossible, we turn their problems over to impersonal social agencies, which can act only in a fragmented way because they are limited to patchwork programs that often are

too late to accomplish what is most needed.

Individuals and families do get some kind of help, but what they learn and what those who work hard within the framework of social agencies convey, even as they try to help, is that families should be able to care for themselves.

18. According to the author, when young families are isolated, ______

A）old people can easily accept the change B）people can move from place to place C）individuals can hardly become innovative D）economy develops at high speed 19. What is said to be the major problem facing young couples?

A）They need to be fulfill more duties

B）They are incapable of balancing the budget

C）They have their children spoiled and overindulged

D）They get empty-handed after divorce.

20. The author implies that ________.

A）social agencies in America can be very helpful

B）the help of American families from social agencies is limited.

C）the government should do more to improve patchwork programs.

D）the fragmentary nature of the American family is unique.

Passage 6

Throughout human history there have been many stringent taboos concerning watching other people eat or eating in the presence of others. There have been attempts to explain these taboos in terms of inappropriate social relationships either between those who are involved and those who are not simultaneously involved in the satisfaction of a bodily need, or between those already satiated and those who appear to be shamelessly gorging. Undoubtedly such elements exist in the taboos, but there is an additional element with a much more fundamental importance. In prehistoric times, when food was so precious and the on-lookers so hungry, not to offer half of the little food one had was unthinkable, since every glance was a plea for life. Further, during those times, people existed in nuclear or extended family groups, and the sharing of food was quite literally supporting one’s family or, by extension, preserving one’s self.

21. If the argument in the passage is valid, taboos against eating in the presence of others

who are not also eating would be LEAST likely in a society that

(A) always had a plentiful supply of food

(B) emphasized the need to share worldly goods

(C) emphasized the value of privacy

(D) discouraged overindulgence

22. According to the passage, the author believes that past attempts to explain some taboos concerning eating are

(A) implausible (B) incomplete (D) ill-founded (D) inelegant

Passage 7

Air, like words, is a form of communication. Words, spoken and written, render accessible to humans of the latest generations all the knowledge discovered by the experience and reflection, both of preceding generations and of the best and foremost minds of their own times. Art renders accessible to people of the latest generations all the feelings experienced by their predecessors, and those already felt by their best and

foremost contemporaries. Just as the proceeds through art. Feelings less kind and less necessary for the well-being of humankind are replaced by other kinder and more essential to that end. This is the purpose of art, and the more art fulfills that purpose that better the art; the less it fulfills it , the worse the art.

23. The author develops the passage primarily by ____

(A) theory and refutation (B) example and generalization

(C) question and answer (D) inference and deduction

24. According to the author, knowledge is ____

(A) evolutionary and emotional (B) cumulative and progressive

(C) static and unmoving (D) dynamic and cyclical

25. The style of the passage can best be described as _____

(A) speculative (B) argumentative (D) expository (D) sarcastic

Passage 8

Our current system of unemployment compensation has increased nearly all sources of adult unemployment seasonal and cyclical variations in the demand for labor, weak labor force attachment, and unnecessarily long durations of unemployment. First, for those who are already unemployed, the system greatly reduces the cost of extending the period of unemployment. Second, for all types of unsteady work – seasonal, cyclical and casual – it raises the net wage to the employee, relative to the cost of the employer.

As for the first, consider a worker who earns $500 per month or $6000 per year if she experiences no employment. If she is unemployed for one month, she loses $500 in gross earnings but only $116 in net income. How does this occur? A reduction of $500 in annual earning reduces her federal, payroll and state tax liability by $134. Unemployment compensation consists of 50 percent of her wage or $250. Her net income therefore falls from $366 if is employed, to $250 paid as unemployment compensation. Moreover, part of the higher income from employment is offset by the cost of transportation to work and other expenses associated with employment; and in some industries, the cost of unemployment is reduced further or even made negative by the supplementary unemployment benefits paid by employers under collective bargaining agreements. The overall effect is to increase the duration of a typical spell of unemployment and to increase the frequency with which individuals lose jobs and become unemployed.

The more general effect of unemployment compensation is to increase the seasonal and cyclical fluctuations in the demand for labor and the relative number of short-lived casual jobs. A worker who accepts such work knows she will be laid off when the season ends. If there were no unemployment compensation, workers could be induced to accept such unstable jobs only if the wage rate were sufficiently higher in those jobs than in the more stable alternative. The higher cost of labor, then would induce employers to reduce the instability of employment by smoothing production lags, by additional development of off-season work and by the introduction of new production techniques, e.g. new methods of outdoor work in bad weather.

Employers contribute to the state unemployment compensation fund on the basis of their own previous employers. Within limits, the more benefits that those former employees draw, the higher is the employer’s tax rate. The theory of experience rating is clear. If an employer paid the full cost of the unemployment benefits that his former employees received, unemployment compensation would provide no incentive to an excess use of unstable unemployment. In practice, however, experience rating is limited

by a maximum rate of employer contribution. For any firm which pays the maximum rate, there is no cost for additional unemployment and no gain from a small reduction in unemployment.

The challenge at this time is to restructure the unemployment system in a way that strengthens its good features while reducing the harmful distinctive effects. Some gains can be achieved by removing the ceiling on the employer’s rate of contribution and by lowering the minimum rate to zero. Employers would then pay the full price of unemployment insurance benefits were taxed in the same way as other earnings. This would eliminate the anomalous situations in which a worker’s net income is actually reduced when he returns to work.

26. The author’s primary con cern is to _______

(A) defend the system of unemployment compensation against criticism

(B) advocate expanding the benefits and scope of coverage of unemployment compensation

(C) point to weakness inherent in government programs which subsidize individ uals

(D) suggest reform to eliminate inefficiencies in unemployment compensation

27. The author cites the example of a worker earning $500 per month in order to ______

(A) show the disincentive created by unemployment compensation for that worker to return to work

(B) demonstrate that the employers do not bear the full cost of worker compensation

(C) condemn workers who prefer to live on unemployment compensation to taking a job

(D) explain why employers prefer to hire seasonal workers instead of permanent workers for short-term jobs

28. The author mentions all of the following as ways by which employers might reduce seasonal and cyclical unemployment EXCEPT_______

(A) developing new techniques of production not affected by weather

(B) slowing delivery schedules to provide work during slow seasons

(C) adopting a system of supplementary benefits for workers laid of in slow periods

(D) finding new jobs to be done by workers during the off-season.

29. With which of the following statements about experience rating would the author most likely agree?

(A) Experience rating is theoretically sound, but its effectiveness in practice in undermined by maximum contribution ceilings

(B) Experience rating is an inefficient method of computing employer contribution

because an employer has no control over the length of an employee’s unemployment (C) Experience rating is theoretically invalid and should be replaced by a system in which

the employee contributes the full amount of benefits he will later receive.

(D) Experience rating is basically fair, but its performance could be improved by requiring large firms to pay more than small firms.

30. It can be inferred that the author regards the unemployment compensation system is ______

(A) socially necessary (B) economically efficient

(C) inherently wasteful (D) seriously outdated

Passage 9

In the past, evolutionary biologists contemplating the absence of wheels in nature

agreed that the explanation was not undesirability; wheels would be good for animals, just as they are for us. Animals were prevented from evolving wheels, the biologists reasoned, by the following dilemma: Living cells in an animal’s body are connected to the heart by blood vessels, and to the brain by nerves. Because a rotating joint is essential to a wheel, a wheel made of living cells would twist its artery, vein, and nerve connections at the first revolution, making living wheels impracticable.

However, there is a flaw in the argument that the evolution of wheeled animals was thwarted by the insoluble joint problem. The theory fails to explain why animals have not evolved wheels of dead tissue with no need for arteries and nerves. Countless animals, including us, bear external structures without blood supply or nerves –for example, our hair and fingernails, or the scales, claws, and horns of other animals. Why have rats not evolved bony wheels, similar to roller skates? Paws might be more useful than wheels in some situations, but cat’s claws are retractable; why not retractable wheels? We thus arrive at the serious biological paradox flippantly termed the RRR dilemma: nature’s failure to produce rats with retractable roller skates.

31. Which of the following is the best title for the passage?

(A) Evolutionary Biology: New Research Methods

(B) How Do Living Joints Function?

(C) Wheels for Animals: A Biological Possibility?

(D) The Evolutionary History of The Wheel

32. The passage discusses the evolution of animals in terms of their ______

(A) genetic structures (B) reproductive cycles (C) anatomy (D) behavior

33. The structural material of the wheels discussed in the passage in would be similar to that of ______

(A) nerves (B) joints (C) arteries and veins (D) scales and horns

34. The concept of retractable roller skates, mentioned in the last sentence, would be best explained as ______

(A) an evolutionary variation of claws

(B) a complex structure of living tissue

(C) an example of human intervention in natural development

(D) a new discovery by evolutionists

Passage 10

When the persuading and the planning for the western railroads had finally been completed, the really challenging task remained: the dangerous, sweaty, backbreaking, brawling business of actually building the lines. The men who took it on comprised the most cosmopolitan work crew in American history. They included Civil War veterans and freed slaves, Irish and German immigrants, Mormons and atheists, Shoshonis, Paiutes, Washos, and Chinese.

At the peak of their labors, the work crews laid two to five miles of track a day. The men filled ravines, ran spidery trestles across rivers and valleys, and punched holes through mountains. And they did all these jobs largely by their own muscle power.

Flatcars carried rails to within half a mile of the railhead; there the iron was loaded onto carts. An eyewitness described the procedure: “A light car, drawn by a single horse, gallops up to the front with its load rails. Two men seize the end of a rail and start forward, the rest of the gang taking holding by twos until it is clear of the car. They come

forward at a run. At the word of command, the rail is dropped in its place, right side up. Less than thirty seconds to a rail for each gang, and so four rails to down to the minute.”

35. Which of the following is the most suitable title for the passage?

(A) An Eyewitness Report (B) A Difficult Task

(C) The Hiring Of a Construction Crew (D) The Railroad And The Civil War

36. According to the passage, in addition to laying railroad track, the work crew did which of the following?

(A) Climbed over mountain peaks. (B) Planned railroads.

(C) Caught horses (D) Made tunnels.

37. In second paragraph, the word “they” refers to ______

(A) men (B) valleys (C) mountains (D) jobs

38. Which of the following phrases could be substitut ed for the phrased “clear of” (in the

third paragraph) without changing the meaning of the sentence?

(A) put through (B) visible to (C) away from (D) open to

Passage 11

With the show Rodeo, Agnes de Mille had been an innovator in the world of ballet. But with the show Oklahoma!, she revolutionized the Broadway stage –brought to an end the dance line routine of high kicks and mechanized movement, and gave in its place dance and plot smoothly integrated, choreography reinforcing the action. Twenty-five years later, in March, 1968, a New York Times article by the theater critic Walter Kerr, headed “In the Beginning Was Oklahoma!”, stated, “Oklahoma! had a plot. It had to do with whether a boy would succeed in taking emotional implications had to be danced o ut at great length in what remains the most exhilarating dancing … ever devised for the United States musical comedy stage.”

The impact of Oklahoma! was instantaneous. The song “Beautiful Morning” sounded out via radios, in restaurants, from cars passing on the highways, in shoeshine parlors. Full skirts of gingham patterns, street shoes made to look like ballet slippers, the ponytail hairdo, were the rage. The play ran for five years and nine weeks in New York City. A traveling road company played it for nine and a half years. It also toured abroad for several years. In 1955 it became a movie. A newly assembled all-star company was sent abroad by the State Department as representative of a part of United States culture.

As for Agnes de Mille, her days of giving recitals and losing $300 to $1,000 each time were over. She became the most sought-after choreographer on Broadway.

39. What is the author’s main purpose in the passage?

(A) To explain the background of the song ““Beautiful Morning”

(B) To compare Rodeo and Oklahoma!

(C) To describe Agnes de Mille’s success with Oklahoma!

(D) To discuss the fashions made popular by Oklahoma!

40. The author cites Walter Kerr because he was ______

(A) the composer of the music for Oklahoma!

(B) a dancer who performed with Agnes de Mille

(C) a critic who praised Agnes de Mille’s choreography

(D) the owner of The New York Times

41. In the second paragraph, the expression “were the rage” could best be replaced by ______

(A) created chaos (B) made people crazed

(C) made people angry (D) were very popular

42. According to the passage, Oklahoma! was selected by the State Department to be performed abroad because it was ______

(A) considered rather revolutionary (B) representative of an aspect of American life

(C) poorly received in New York City (D) an inspiring love story

43. The passage implies that prior to Oklahoma! Agnes de Mille had given recitals that were ______

(A) popular comedy routines (B) financially unsuccessful

(C) performed at picnics (D) broadcast over the radio

Passage 12

Lichens are a unique group of complex, flowerless plants growing on rocks and trees. There are thousands kinds of lichens, which come in a wide variety of colors. They are composed of algae and fungi, which unite to satisfy the needs the lichens. The autotrophic green algae produce all their own food through a process called photosynthesis and provide the lichen with nutritional elements. On the other hand, the heterotrophic fungus, which on other elements to provide its food, not only absorbs and stores water for the plant, but also helps protect it. This union by which two dissimilar organisms live together is called "symbiosis". This sharing enables lichens to resist the most adverse environmental conditions found on earth. They can be found in some very unlikely places such as polar ice caps as well as in tropical zones, in dry areas as well in wet ones, on mountain peaks and along coastal areas. The lichen's strong resistance to its hostile environment and its ability to live in harmony with such environments is one example that humanity should consider in trying solve their own problems.

44. Which of the following is NOT true?

(A) Lichens are not simple plants

(B) The lichen habitat is limited to the polar ice caps

(C) Lichens can resist a hostile environment.

(D) Heterotrophic plants depend on their elements to supply their food.

45. What can be said about autotrophic plants and heterotrophic plants?

(A) They produce their food in the same manner.

(B) They produce their food in the same manner.

(C) Autotrophic plants need other elements to supply their food.

(D) Their methods of food production are completely different.

46. What of the following conclusions could be made about lichens?

(A) They are found worldwide and are complex plants made up of algae and fungi.

(B) They are found worldwide and are simple plants, symbiotic in nature.

(C) They are found worldwide and are compound plants made up entirely of algae.

(D) Although found worldwide, lichens are found mostly as a simple form in the tropics.

47. Which of the following directly relates to algae?

(A) It offers protection to lichens. (B) It supplies water for lichens.

(C) It supplies its own food. (D) It is depended on other plants for its food supp ly. Passage 13

All that we really need to plot out the future of our Universe are a few good measurements. This does not mean that we can sit down today and outline the future course of the universe with anything like certainty. There are still too many things we

don't know about the way the Universe is put together. We do know exactly what information we need to fill in our knowledge, and we have a pretty good idea of how to go about getting it. Perhaps the best way to think of our present situation is to imagine a train coming into a switchyard. All of the Switches are set before the train arrives, so that its path is completely determined. Some Switches we can see, others we can't. There is no ambiguity if We can see the setting of a switch：we can say with confidence that some possible futures will not materialize and others will. At the unseen switches，however, there is no such

certainty. We know the train will take one of the tracks leading out, but we have no idea which one. The unseen switches are the true decision points in the future, and what happens when we arrive at them determines the entire subsequent course of events. When we think about the future of the universe, we can see our "track" many bil1ions of years into the future, but after that there are decision points to be dealt with and possible fates to consider. The goal science is to reduce the ambiguity at the decision points and find the true road to be followed.

48. According to the passage, it is difficult to be certain about the distant future of the universe because we _______

(A) have too many conflicting theories

(B) do not have enough funding to continue our research

(C) are not sure how the universe is put together

(D) have focused our investigations on the moon and planets

49. What does the author comment on the function of the universe's unseen "Switches"?

(A) They tell us which one of the tracks the universe will use.

(B) They enable us to alter the course of the universe

(C) They give us information about the lunar surface.

(D) They determine which course the universe will take in the future.

50. In line 9, the word "track" could best be replaced by which of the following?

(A) band (B) rails (C) path (D) sequence

51.For whom is the author probably writing this passage?

(A) Train engineers (B) General audiences

(C) Professors of statistics (D) Young children

52. Which of the following statements best describes the organization of the passage?

(A) A statement illustrated by an analogy

(B) A hypothesis supported by documentation

(C) A comparison of two contrasting theories

(D) A critical analysis of a common assumption

Passage 14

Trees have a spectacular survival record. Over a period of more than 400 million years, they have evolved as the tallest, most massive, and longest-lived organisms ever to inhabit the Earth. Yet trees lack a means of defense that almost every animal has: trees cannot move away from destructive forces. Because they cannot move, all type of living and nonliving enemies –fire, storms, microorganisms, insects, other animals and, later, humans – have wounded them throughout their history. Trees have survived because their evolution have made them into highly compartmented organisms: that is, they wall off injured and infected wood.

In that respect trees are radically different from animals. Fundamentally, animals heal: they preserve their life by making billions of repairs, installing new cells or rejuvenated cells in the positions of old ones. Trees cannot heal; they make no repairs. Instead, they defend themselves from the consequences of injury and infection by walling off the damage. At he same time, they put new cells in new positions; in effect, they grow a new tree over the old one every year. The most obvious results of the process are the growth rings, which are visible on the cross section of a trunk, a root, or a branch.

53. The author’s main purpose in this article is to explain the _____

(A) life cycle of a tree (B) way trees survive

(C) importance of trees to human progress (D) dangers trees face from natural disasters

54. The author describes trees as all of the following EXCEPT _____

(A) tall (B) green (C) massive (D) long-lived

55. The author implies that almost every animal is able to protect itself from destructive forces by doing which of the following?

(A) Moving away (B) Calling for help

(C) Climbing up a tree (D) Remaining with its group

55. In line 5, the word “they” refers to _____

(A) enemies (B) animals (C) Humans (D) trees

Passage 15

Beavers, North America's largest rodents, appear to lead such exemplary lives that a trapper once rather romantically observed that "beavers follow close to the line of the Ten Commandments. " The Ten Commandments do not mention anything about building dams, lodges, and canals, however, and the beaver's penchant for doing so has got it into a lot of hot water lately. Fishing enthusiasts in the Midwest and New England are complaining about beaver dams that spoil streams for trout and, in the Southeast, lumber companies object whenever the animals flood out valuable stands of commercial timber. But some beaver experts champion a more charitable view. Historically, they say, this creature's impact on the environment has been tremendously significant, and its potential as a practical conservation resource is receiving more and more attention. When it comes to modifying the landscape in a major way, the beaver ranks second only to humans among all living creatures. "Some people think of the beaver the same way they think of the gypsy moth," said one scientist. "They think it just comes through and eats and destroys. What they don't understand is the fact that for centuries this animal has controlled the character of the forests and streams that it occupies. "

57. Which of the following is the best title for this passage?

(A) The Controversy over Beavers and the environment

(B) New England's Beaver Population

(C) The Influence of Beavers on the Fishing Industry

(D) Beavers and the Ten Commandments

58. In lines 4-5, the author refers to "hot water" to indicate that beavers_______

(A) are able to cook their food (B) are in trouble

(C) have a form of plumbing (D) enjoy hot baths

59. From the passage, which of the following can be inferred about gypsy moths?

(A) They conserve resources (B) They build small dams

(C) They have a bad reputation (D) They eat fish

60. According to the passage, lumber companies complain because beavers _______

(A) attract other large rodents (B) ruin trout streams

(C) destroy too many buildings (D) create floods in forests

61. According to the passage, which of the following cause the greatest changes in the environment?

(A) Humans (B) Trout (C) Gypsy moths (D) Beavers

62. In the final line, what does "it" refer to?

(A) A fact (B) A century (C) An animal (D) A character

Passage 16

Eight varsity baseball players (G, H, J, K, L, M, N, O) are to be honored at a special ceremony. Three of these players (H, M, and O) are also varsity football players. Two of them (K and N) are also basketball players on the varsity team. In arranging the seats it was decided that athletes in two sports should not be seated next to another two-sport athlete.

63. Which of the following combinations is possible in order to have the arrangement of seat assignments as planned?

(A) HGKJ (B) HKJL (C) JKMN (D) JLHK

64. To have the proper seating arrangement, K should sit between _____

(A) G and H (B) J and M (C) L and N (D) J and L

65. Which of the following cannot sit next to M?

(A) G (B) J (C) G and J (D) K

66. Before all athletes are seated there are two vacant seats on either side of N. Which two athletes may occupy there seats?

(A) G and K (B) G and L (C) J and H (D) L and O

Passage 17

Tom wishes to enroll in Latin AA, Sanskrit A, Armenian Literature 221, and Celtic Literature 701.

Latin AA meets five days a week, either from 9 to 11 a.m. or from 2 to 4 p.m.

Sanskrit A meets either Tuesday and Thursday from 12 noon to 3 p.m., or Monday, Wednesday, and Friday from 10 a.m. to 12 noon.

Armenian Literature 221 meets either Monday, Wednesday, and Friday from 12:30 to 2 p.m., or Tuesday and Thursday from 10:30 a.m. to 12:30 p.m.

Celtic Literature 701 meets by arrangement with the instructor, the only requirement being that it meet for one four-hour session or two two-hour sessions per week, between 9 a.m. and 4 p.m. from Monday to Friday, beginning on the hour.

67. Which combination is impossible for Tom?

(A) Latin in the morning, Sanskrit on Tuesday and Thursday, and Armenian Literature on Monday, Wednesday, and Friday.

(B) Latin in the afternoon and Sanskrit and Armenian Literature on Monday, Wednesday, and Friday.

(C) Latin in the afternoon, Sanskrit on Monday, Wednesday, and Friday, and Armenian Literature on Tuesday and Thursday.

(D) Latin in the morning and Sanskrit and Armenian Literature on Monday, Wednesday, and Friday.

68. Which gives the greatest number of alternatives for scheduling Celtic Literature,

assuming that all other courses are scheduled without conflicts?

(A) Latin in the afternoon and Armenian Literature on Monday, Wednesday, and Friday.

(B) Sanskrit on Tuesday and Thursday, and Armenian Literature on Monday, Wednesday, and Friday.

(C) Latin in the afternoon and Armenian Literature on Tuesday and Thursday.

(D) Latin in the morning and Sanskrit on Tuesday and Thursday

69. If the Celtic instructor insists on holding at least one session on Friday, in which of the following can Tom enroll?

I. Armenian Literature on Monday, Wednesday, and Friday

II. Sanskrit on Monday, Wednesday, and Friday

(A) I only (B) II only (C) Both I and II (D) I or II but not both

70. Which of the following additional courses, meeting as indicated, can Tom take?

(A) Old Church Slavonic-- Monday, Wednesday, and Friday from 10 a.m. to 12 noon

(B) Intermediated Aramaic-- Monday, Wednesday, and Friday from 11 a.m. to 12:30 p.m.

(C) Introductory Acadian-- Tuesday and Thursday from 2 to 4 p.m.

(D) Fundamentals of Basque-- Tuesday and Thursday from 1 to 3 p.m.

Part Two Linguistics 30 points (Write down your answers to the questions in this part of the test in separate blank answer sheets provided at your test center.)

1. Describe the ways in which changes in lexicon are made. 10 points

2. What are the major design features of language? 5 points

3. What are the criteria used in phonetic description of vowels? 5 points

4. What is the relationship between linguistics and foreign language teaching? 10 points Part Three Literature 50 points (Write down your answers to the questions in this part of the test in separate blank answer sheets provided at your test center.)

1. Write down the names of the authors of the following literary works: (8 points)

a. Pardoner’s Tale

b. Lords of the Flies

c. The Rainbow

d. Essay on Criticism

e. The Naked and the Dead

f. Ambassador

g. Lolita

h. The Sun Also Rises

2. Explain TWO of the following literary terms: (in about 50 words for each) (8 points)

A. modernism

B. imagism

C. black humor E. naturalism

D. New Criticism;

3. Answer ONE of the following questions on British Literature (in no less than 100

words) (8 points):

A. Tell the names of the 5 major British romantic poets. Whom do you like best?

Explain why.

B. Make a comparison between Thomas Hardy and Charles Dickens in their

descriptions of England.

4. Answer ONE of the following questions on American Literature (in no less than 100

words) (8 points):

A. Discuss the differences in themes between Walt Whitman and Emily Dickinson.

B. What changes have taken place in American literature since the Second World

War? Make a comparison between the 30 years before and after the Second World War.

5. Describe and make a comment on TWO of the following characters (in about 50 words

for each) (8 points)

A. Huckleberry Finn

B. Augie March

C. Rebecca Sharp E. Hester Prynne

D. Macbeth

6. Read the following poem and write a short essay based on the following questions (in no less than 120 words) (10 points):

Sonnets from the Portuguese XIV If thou must love me, let it be for nought Except for love's sake only. Do not say "I love her for her smile-- her look-- her way Of speaking gently,-- for a trick of thought That falls in well with mine, and certes﹡brought A sense of pleasant ease on such a day"-- For these things in themselves, Belovèd, may Be changed, or change for thee,-- and love, so wrought, May be unwrought so. Neither love me for Thine own dear pity's wiping my cheeks dry,--

A creature might forget to weep, who bore Thy comfort long, and lose thy love

thereby! But love me for love's sake, that evermore Thou may'st love on, through love's eternity.

Note:

﹡certes: certainly.

Questions:

A. What is the poet’s concept of love?

B. Is the poet’s concept of love realistic? What do you think of it in modern society?