2014年全国统一高考英语试卷(全国二卷)

2014年全国统一高考英语试卷(全国二卷)
2014年全国统一高考英语试卷(全国二卷)

2014年全国统一高考英语试卷(新课标Ⅱ)

第二部分阅读理解(共两节,满分40分)

第一节(共15小题;每小题2分,满分40分)

阅读下列列短文,从每题所给的四个选项(A、B、C和D)中,选出最佳选项。并在答题卡上将该选项涂黑。

A

Arriving in Sydney on his own from India, my husband, Rashid, stayed in a hotel for a short time while looking for a short time while looking for a house for me and our children.

During the first week of his stay, he went out one day to do some shopping. He came back in the late afternoon to discover that his suitcase was gone. He was extremely worried as the suitcase had all his important papers, including his passport.

He reported the case to the police and then sat there, lost and lonely in strange city, thinking of the terrible troubles of getting all the paperwork organized again from a distant country while trying to settle down in a new one.

Late in the evening, the phone rang. It was a stranger. He was trying to pronounce my husband’s name and was asking him a lot of questions. Then he said they had found a pile of papers in their trash can(垃圾桶)that had been left out on the footpath.

My husband rushed to their home to find a kind family holding all his papers and documents. Their young daughter had gone to the trash can and found a pile of unfamiliar papers. Her parents had carefully sorted them out, although they had found mainly foreign addresses on most of the documents. At last they had seen a half-written letter in the pile in which my husband had given his new telephone number to a friend.

That family not only restored the important documents to us that day but also restored our faith and trust in people. We still remember their kindness and often send a warm wish their way.

21. What did Rashid plan to do after his arrival in Sydney?

A. Go shopping

B. Find a house

C. Join his family

D. Take his family

22. The girl’s parents got Rashid’s phone number from.

A. a friend of his family

B. a Sydney policeman

C. a letter in his papers

D. a stranger in Sydney

23. What does the underlined word “restored” in the last paragraph mean?

A. Showed

B. Sent out

C. Delivered

D. Gave back

24. Which of the following can be the best title for the text?

A. From India to Australia.

B. Living in a a New Country.

C. Turning Trash to Treasure.

D. In Search of New Friends.

B

Since the first Earth Day in 1970, American have gotten a lot “greener” toward the environment. “We didn’t know at that time there even was an environment, let alone that there was a problem with it,” says Bruce Anderson, president of Earth Day USA.

But what began as nothing important in public affairs has grown into a social movement. Business people, political leaders, university professors, and especially millions of grass-roots Americans are taking part in the movement. “The understanding has increased many, many times,” says Gaylord Nelson, the former governor from Wisconsin, who thought up the first According to US government reports, emissions (排放) from cars and trucks have dropped from 10.3 million tons a year to 5.5 tons. The number of cities producing CO beyond the standard has been reduced from 40 to 9. Although serious problems still remain and need to be dealt with, the world is a safer and healthier place. A kind of “Green thinking” has become part of practices.

Great improvement has been achieved. In 1988 there were only 600 recycling programs; today in 1995 there are about 6,600. Advanced lights, motors, and building designs have helped save a lot of energy and therefore prevented pollution.

Twenty-five years ago, there were hardly any education programs for

environment. Today, it’s hard to find a public school, university, or law school that does not have such a kind of program.” Until we do that, nothing else will change!” say Bruce Anderson.

25. According to Anderson, before 1970, Americans had little idea about.

A. the social movement

B. recycling techniques

C. environmental problems

D. the importance of Earth Day

26. Where does the support for environmental protection mainly come from?

A. The grass-roots level

B. The business circle

C. Government officials

D. University professors

27. What have Americans achieved in environmental protection?

A. They have cut car emissions to the lowest.

B. They have settled their environmental problems.

C. They have lowered their CO levels in forty cities.

D. They have reduced pollution through effective measures.

28. What is especially important for environmental protection according to the last paragraph?

A. Education

B. Planning

C. Green living

D. CO reduction

C

One of the latest trend(趋势)in American Childcare is Chinese au pairs. Au Pair in Stamford, for example, has got increasing numbers of request for Chinese au pairs from aero to around 4,000 since 2004. And that’s true all ac ross the country.

“I thought it would be useful for him to learn Chinese at an early age” Joseph Stocke, the managing director of s company, says of his 2-year-old son. “I would at least like to give him the chance to use the language in the future.” After only six months of being cared by 25-year-old woman from China, the boy can already understand basic Chinese daily expressions, his dad says.

Li Drake, a Chinese native raising two children in Minnesota with an American husband, had another reason for loo king for an au pair from China. She didn’t want her children to miss out on their roots. “Because I am Chinese, my husband and I

wanted the children to keep exposed to (接触) the language and culture.” she says.

“Staying with a native speaker is better for c hildren than simply sitting in a classroom,” says Suzanne Flynn, a professor in language education of Children.“But parents must understand that just one year with au pair is unlikely to produce wonders. Complete mastery demands continued learning until the age of 10 or 12.”

The popularity if au pairs from China has been strengthened by the increasing numbers of American parents who want their children who want their children to learn Chinese. It is expected that American demand for au pairs will continue to rise in the next few years.

29. What does that term “au pair” in the text mean?

A. A mother raising her children on her own.

B. A child learning a foreign language at home.

C. A professor in language education of children.

D. A young foreign woman taking care of children.

30. Li Drake has her children study Chinese because she wants them.

A. to live in China some day

B. to speak the language at home

C. to catch up wit other children

D. to learn about the Chinese culture

31. What can we infer from the text?

A. Learning Chinese is becoming popular in America.

B. Educated woman do better in looking after children.

C. Chinese au pairs need to improve their English Skills.

D. Children can learn a foreign language well in six months.

D

Metro Pocket Guide

Metrorail (地铁)

Each passenger needs a farecard to enter and go out. Up to two children under age five may travel free with a paying customer.

Farecard machines are in every station. Bring small bills because there are no change machines in the stations and farecard machines only provide up to $5 in

change.

Get one ticket of unlimited Metrorall rides with a One Day Pass. Buy it from a farecard machine in Metro stations. Use it after 9:30 a.m. until closing on weekdays, and all day on weekends and holidays.

Hours of service

Open: 5a.m. Mon.---Fri. 7a.m. Sat.---Sun.

Close: midnight Sun.---Thur. 3a.m. Fri.---Sat. nights

Last train times vary. To avoid missing the last train, please check the last train time posted in the station.

Metrobus

When paying with exact charge, the fare is $1.35. When paying with a SmarTrip? card, the fare is $1.25.

Fares for the senior/ disabled customers

Senior citizens 65 and older and disabled customers may ride for half the regular fare. On Metrorail and Metrobus, use a senior/disabled farecard or SmarTrip? card. For more information about buying senior/disabled farecards, farecard or SmarTrip?cards and passes, please visit https://www.360docs.net/doc/a91398671.html, or call 202-637-7000 and 202-637-8000.

Senior citizens and disabled customers can get free guide on how to use proper Metrobus and Metrorall services by calling 202-962-1100.

Travel tips (提示)

?Avoid riding during weekday rush periods---before 9:30 a.m. and between 4 and 6 p.m.

?If you lose something on a bus or train or in a station, please call Lost & Found at 202-962-1195.

32. What should you know about farecard machines?

A. They start selling tickets at 9:30 a.m.

B. They are connected to change machines.

C. They offer special service to the elderly.

D. They make change for no more than $5.

33. At what time does Metrorail stop service on Saturday?

A. At midnight

B. at 3 a.m.

C. at 5 a.m.

D.at 7 p.m.

34. What is good about a SmarTrip? card?

A. It is convenient for old people.

B. It saves money for its users.

C. it can be bought at any time.

D. it is sold on the Internet.

35. Which number should you call if you lose something on the Metro?

A. 202-962-1195

B. 202-962-1100

C. 202-673-7000

D. 202-673-8000

第二节(共5小题:每小题2分,满分10分)

根据短文内容,从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。

Tips for cooking on a Tight Schedule

From my experience, there are three main reasons why people don’t cook more often: ability, money and time, 36 Money is a topic I’l l save for another day. So today I want to give you some wisdom about how to make the most of the time you spend in the kitchen. Here are three tips for great cooking on a tight schedule:

①Think ahead. The moments when I think cooking is a pain are when I’m already hungry and there is nothing ready to eat. So think about of the coming week. When will you have time to cook? Do you have the right materials ready? 37

②Make your time worth it. When you do find time to cook a meal, make the most of it and save yourself time later on. Are you making one loaf of bread? 38 it takes around the same amount of time to make more of something. So save yourself the effort for a future meal.

③39 This may surprise you, but one of the best tools for making cooking worth your time is experimentation. It gives you the chance to hit upon new ideas and recipes that can work well with your appetite and schedule. The more you learn and the more you try, the more ability you have to take control of your food and your schedule.

Hopefully that gives you a good start. 40 and don’t let a busy schedule discourage you from making some great changes in the way you eat and live!

A. Try new things

B. Ability is easily improved

C. Make three or four instead

D. Understand your food better

E. Cooking is a burden for many people

F. Let cooking and living simply be a joy rather than a burden

G. A little time planning ahead can save a lot of work later on

第三部分英语知识运用(共两节,满分45分)

第一节完形填空(共20小题;每题1.5分,满分30分)

阅读下面短文,从短文后各题所给的四个选项(A,B,C和D)中,选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项,并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。

Joe Simpson and Simon Yates were the first people to climb the West Face of the Siula Grande in the Andes mountains. They reached the top 41 , but on their way back conditions were very42 . Joe fell and broke his leg. They both knew that if Simon 43 alone, he would probably get back44 . But Simon decided to risk his45 and try to lower Joe down the mountain on a rope(绳).

As they46 down, the weather got worse. Then another 47 occurred. They couldn’t see or hear each other and, 48 , Simon lowered his friend over the edge of a precipice(峭壁). It was 49 for Joe to climb back or for Simon to pull him up. Joe’s50 was pulling Simon slowly towards the precipice. 51 , after more than an hour in the dark and the icy cold, Simon had to 52 . In tears, he cut the rope. Joe 53 into a large crevasse(裂缝)in the ice below. He had no food or water and he was in terrible pain. He couldn’t walk, but he 54 to get out of the crevasse and started to 55 towards their camp, nearly ten kilometers 56 .

Simon had57 the camp at the foot of the mountain. He thought that Joe must be58 , but he didn’t want to leave 59 . Three days later, in the middle of the night, he heard Joe’s voice. He co uldn’t60 it. Joe was there, a few meters from their tent, still alive.

2018年高考英语全国1卷含答案解析和简单解析

绝密★启封前 2018年普通高等学校招生全国统一考试(新课标I) 英语 注意事项: 1.答题前,先将自己的、号填写在试题卷和答题卡上,并将号条形码粘贴在答题卡上的指定 位置。用2B铅笔将答题卡上试卷类型A后的方框涂黑。 2.选择题的作答:每小题选出答案后,用2B铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑,写 在试题卷、草稿纸和答题卡上的非答题区域均无效。 3.非选择题的作答:用签字笔直接答在答题卡上对应的答题区域。写在试题卷、草稿纸和答 题卡上的非答题区域均无效。 4.考试结束后,请将本试题卷和答题卡一并上交。 第Ⅰ卷 第一部分听力(共两节,满分 30 分) 做题时,现将答案标在试卷上,录音容结束后,你将有两分钟的时间将试卷上的答案转涂到 答题卡上。 第一节(共 5 小题;每小题 1.5 分,满分 7.5 分) 听下面 5 段对话,每段对话后有一个小题。从题中所给的 A,B,C 三个选项中选出最佳选项,并标在试卷的相应位置。听完每段对话后,你都有 10 秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一 小题。每段对话仅读一遍。 例: How much is the shirt? A.£ 19.15 B.£ 9.18 C.£ 9.15 答案是 C。 1.What are the speakers talking about? A. Having a birthday party. B. Doing some exercise. C. Getting Lydia a gift 2.What is the woman going to do? A. Help the man. B. Take a bus. C. Get a camera 3.What does the woman suggest the man do? A. Tell Kate to stop. B. Call Kate, s friends. C. Stay away from Kate.

2018高考英语 全国二卷

英语 第一部分听力(共两节,满分30分) 第一节(功5小题,每小题1.5分,满分7.5分) 听下面5短对话,每段对话后有一个小题,从题中给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后,你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。 1.what does john find difficult in learning German? A.Pronunciation B.Vocabulay C.Grammar 2.What is the probable relationship between the speakers? A.Colleagues B.Brother and sister C.Teather and student 3.Where does the conversation probably take place? A. In a bank B. At a ticket coffee C. On the train

4. What are the speakers talking about? A.A restaurant B.A street C.A dish 5. How does this woman think of her interview? A.It was tough B. It was interesting C It was Successful 第二节(功15小题,每小题1.5分,满分22.5分) 听下面5短对话或独白,每段对话或独白后有几个小题,从题中给的A、B、C 三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话或独白后,你将有时间阅读各个小题,每小题5秒钟;听完后,各小题有5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。 听第6段材料,回答第6、7题。 6.When will Judy go to the party? A.On Monday B.On Tuesday C.On Wednesday 7.What will Max do next?

(完整)2018年高考英语全国2卷试题

2018年全国普通高等学校统一考试 英语试题 第二部阅读理解(共两节,满分40分) 第一节(共15题;每小题2分,满分30分) 阅读下列短文,从每题所给的四个选项(A、B、C和D)中,选出最佳选项,并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。 A Summer Activities Students should read the list with their parents/carers, and select two activities they would like to do. Forms will be available in school and online for them to indicate their choices and return to school. Before choices are finalised, parents/ carers will be asked to sign to confirm their chil dren’s choices.

21. Which activity will you choose if you want to go camping? A. OUT. B. WBP. C. CRF. D.POT. 22. What will the students do on Tuesday with Mrs. Wilson? A. Travel to London B. see a parade and fireworks. C. Tour central Paris. D. Visit the WWI battlefields. 23. How long does Potty about Potter last? A. Two days. B. Four days C. Five days D. One week. B Many of us love July because it’s the month when nature’s berries and stone fruits are in abundance. These colorful and sweet jewels from British Columbia’s fields are little powerhouses of nutritional protection. Of the common berries, strawberries are highest in vitamin C, although, because of their seeds, raspberries contain a little more protein(蛋白质), iron and zinc (not that fruits have much protein). Blueberries are particularly high in antioxidants (抗氧化物质). The yellow and orange stone fruits such as peaches are high in the carotenoids we turn into Vitamin A and which are antioxidants. As for cherries(樱桃), they are so delicious who

2014年高考英语试卷(新课标I)word校对版

2014年普通高等学校招生全国统一考试(新课标I) 英语 第一部分听力(略) 第二部分阅读理解(共两节,满分60分) 第一节(共15小题;每小题3分,满分45分) 阅读下列短文,从每题所给的四个选项(A、B、C和D)中,选出最佳选项,并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。 A The Cambridge Science Festival Curiosity Challenge Dare to Take the Curiosity Challenge! The Cambridge Science Festival (CSF) is pleased to inform you of the sixth annual Curiosity Challenge. The challenge invites, even dares school students between the ages of 5 and 14 to create artwork or a piece of writing that shows their curiosity and how it inspires them to explore their world. Students are being dared to draw a picture, write an article, take a photo or write a poem that shows what they are curious about. To enter the challenge, all artwork or pieces of writing should be sent to the Cambridge Science Festival, MIT Museum, 265 Mass Avenue, Cambridge 02139 by Friday, February 8th. Students who enter the Curiosity Challenge and are selected as winners will be honored at a special ceremony during the CSF on Sunday, April 21st. Guest speakers will also present prizes to the students. Winning entries will be published in a book. Student entries will be exhibited and prizes will be given. Families of those who take part will be included in the celebration and brunch will be served. Between March 10th and March 15th, each winner will be given the specifics of the closing ceremony and the Curiosity Challenge celebration. The program guidelines and other related information are available at: https://www.360docs.net/doc/a91398671.html,. 21. Who can take part in the Curiosity Challenge? A. School students. B. Cambridge locals. C. CSF winners. D. MIT artists. 22. When will the prize-giving ceremony be held? A. On February 8th. B. On March 10th. C. On April 21st. D.On March 15th. 23. What type of writing is this text? A. An exhibition guide. B. An art show review. C. An announcement. D. An official report. B Passenger pigeons(旅鸽) once flew over much of the United States in unbelievable numbers. Written accounts from the 18th and 19th centuries described 1

2018年高考英语真题(新课标全国一卷)有答案

绝密★启用前 2018年普通高等学校招生全国统一考试(新课标全国I卷) 英语 (考试时间:120分钟试卷满分:150分) 注意事项: 1. 答卷前,考生务必将自己的姓名、准考证号填写在答题卡上。 2. 回答选择题时,选出每小题答案后,用铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。如需改动,用橡皮擦干净后,再选涂其他答案标号。回答非选择题时,将答案写在答题卡上,写在本试卷上无效。 3. 考试结束后,将本试卷和答题卡一并交回。 第一部分听力(共两节,满分30分) 做题时,先将答案标在试卷上。录音内容结束后,你将有两分钟的时间将试卷上的答案转涂到答题卡上。第一节(共5小题;每小题1.5分,满分7.5分) 听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后,你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。 例:How much is the shirt? A. £ 19. 15. B. £ 9. 18. C. £ 9. 15. 答案是C。 1.what will James do tomorrow ? A.Watch a TV program. B.Give a talk. C.Write a report. 2.What can we say about the woman? A.She's generour. B.She's curious. C.She's helpful. 3.When does the traif leave?https://www.360docs.net/doc/a91398671.html, A.At 6:30. B.At8:30. C.At 10:30. 4.How does the wonar sRwr?m A.By car. B.On foot. C.By bike 5.What is the probable relationship between the speakers? A.Classmates. B.Teacher and student. C.Doctor and patient. 第二节(共15小题;每小题1.5分,满分22.5分) 听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前,你将有时间阅读各个小题,每小题5秒钟;听完后,各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。 听第6段材料,回答第6、7题。 6.What does the woman regret? A.Giving up her research. B.Dropping out of college. C.Changiny her major.

2018高考真题英语全国2卷

2018年普通高等学校招生全国统一考试(全国II卷) 英语 注意事项: 1. 答卷前,考生务必将自己的姓名、准考证号填写在答题卡上。 2. 回答选择题时,选出每小题答案后,用铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。如需改动,用橡皮擦干净 后,再选涂其他答案标号。回答非选择题时,将答案写在答题卡上,写在本试卷上无效。 3. 考试结束后,将本试卷和答题卡一并交回。 第一部分听力(共两节,满分30分) 做题时,先将答案标在试卷上。录音内容结束后,你将有两分钟的时间将试卷上的答案转涂到答题卡上。 第一节(共5小题;每小题 1.5分,满分7.5分) 听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后,你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。 例:How much is the shirt? A. £19. 15. B. £9. 18. C. £9. 15. 答案是C。 1. What does John find difficult in learning German? A. Pronunciation. B. Vocabulary. C. Grammar. 2. What is the probable relationship between the speakers? A. Colleagues. B. Brother and sister. C. Teacher and student. 3. Where does the conversation probably take place? A. In a bank. B. At a ticket office. C. On a train. 4. What are the speakers talking about? A. A restaurant. B. A street. C. A dish. 5. What does the woman think of her interview? A. It was tough. B. It was interesting. C. It was successful. 第二节(共15小题;每小题 1.5分,满分22.5分) 听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前,你将有时间阅读各个小题,每小题5秒钟;听完后,各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。 听第6段材料,回答第6、7题。 6. When will Judy go to a party? A. On Monday. B. On Tuesday. C. On Wednesday. 7. What will Max do next? A. Fly a kite. B. Read a magazine. C. Do his homework. 听第7段材料,回答第8、9题。 8. What does the man suggest doing at first? A. Going to a concert. B. Watching a movie. C. Playing a computer game.

2019年高考英语全国2卷含答案

2019年高考英语全国 2卷含答案 -CAL-FENGHAI-(2020YEAR-YICAI)_JINGBIAN

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2014年上海高考英语试卷word版含答案

2014年全国普通高等学校招生统一考试 上海英语试卷 考生注意: 1.考试时间120分钟,试卷满分150分。 2.本考试设试卷和答题纸两部分。试卷分为第Ⅰ卷(笫1-12页)和第Ⅱ卷(第13页), 全卷共13页。所有答題必须涂(选择题)或写(非选择题)在答题纸上,做在试卷上一律不得分。 3.答題前,务必在答題纸上填写准考证号和姓名,并将核对后的条形码貼在指定位置上, 在答題纸反面清楚地填写姓名。 第I卷(共103分) I. Listening Comprehension Section A Directions: In Section A, you will hear ten short conversations between two speakers. At the end of each conversation, a question will be asked about what was said. The conversations and the questions will be spoken only once. After you hear a conversation and the question about it, read the four possible answers on your paper, and decide which one is the best answer to the question you have heard. 1. A. policewoman. B. A judge. C. A reporter. D. A waitress. 2. A. Confident. B. Puzzled. C. Satisfied. D. Worried. 3. A. At a restaurant. B. At a car rental agency. C. In a bank. D. In a driving school. 4. A. A disaster. B. A new roof. C. A performance. D. A TV station. 5. A. Catch the train. B. Meet Jane. C. Get some stationery. D. Clean the backyard. 6. A. Ask for something cheaper. B. Buy the vase she really likes. C. Protect herself from being hurt. D. Bargain with the shop assistant. 7. A. Use a computer in the lab. B. Take a chemistry course. C. Help him revise his report. D. Gel her computer repaired. 8. A. Amused. B. Embarrassed. C. Shocked. D. Sympathetic. 9. A. She doesn't plan to continue studying next year. B. She has already told the man about her plan. C. She isn’t planning to leave her university. D. She recently visited a different university. 10. A. It spoke highly of the mayor. B. It misinterpreted the mayor’s speech. C. It made the mayor’s view clearer. D. It earned the mayor’s sp eech accurately. Section B

(完整word版)2018年高考英语全国1卷及答案.doc

绝密★启用前 2018 年普通高等学校招生全国统一考试 英语 (Ⅰ卷 ) 第一部分听力(共两节,满分30 分) 第一节(共5小题;每小题 1.5 分,满分7.5 分) 听下面 5 段对话。每段对话后有一个小题,从题中所给的 A 、 B 、C 三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后,你都有10 秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。 每段对话仅读一遍。例:How much is the shirt? A. £19.15. B. £9.18. C. £9.15. 答案是 C。 1. What will James do tomorrow? A. Watch a TV program B. Give a talk. C. Write a report. 2. What can we say about the woman? A. She’s generous. B. She’s curious C. She’s helpful. 3. When does the train leave? A. At 6:30. B. At 8:30. C. At 10:30. 4. How does the woman go to work? A. By car. B. On foot. C. By bike. 5. What is the probable relationship between the speakers? A. Classmates. B. Teacher and student C. Doctor and patient. 第二节(共15小题;每小题 1.5 分,满分 22.5 分) 听下面 5 段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题,从题中所给的A、 B 、 C 三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前,你将有时间阅读各个小题,每小题 5 秒钟;听完后,各小题将给出 5 秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。 听第 6 段材料,回答第6、7 题。 6. W hat does the woman regret? A. Giving up her research. B. Dropping out of college. C. Changing her major. 7. W hat is the woman interested in studying now? A. Ecology. B. Education. C. Chemistry. 听第 7 段材料,回答第8、9 题。 8. W hat is the man? A. A hotel manager. B. A tour guide. C. A taxi driver. 9.What is the man doing for the woman? A. Looking for some local foods. B. Showing her around the seaside. C. Offering information about a hotel. 听第 8 段材料,回答第10 至 12 题。 10. Where does the conversation probably take place? A. In an office. B. At home. C. At a restaurant. 11. What will the speakers do tomorrow evening? A. Go to a concert. B. Visit a friend. C. Work extra hours. 12. Who is Alice going to call? A. Mike. B. Joan. C. Catherine. 听第 9 段材料,回答第13 至 16 题。 13. Why does the woman meet the man? A. To look at an apartment. B. To deliver some furniture. C. To have a meal together. 14. What does the woman like about the carpet? A. Its color. B. Its design. C. Its quality. 15. What does the man say about the kitchen? A. It ’s a good size. B. It ’s newly painted. C.It ’s equately equipped. 16. What will the woman probably do next? A. Go downtown. B. Talk with her friend. C. Make payment. 听第 10 段材料,回答第17 至 20 题。 17. Who is the speaker probably talking to? A. Movie fans. B. News reporters. C. College students. 18. When did the speaker take English classes? A. Before he left his hometown. BAter he came to America C. When he was 15 years old. 19. How does the speaker feel about his teacher? A. He ’s proud. B. He’s sympathetic. C. He’s grateful. 20.What does the speaker mainly talk about? A. How education shaped his life. B. How his language skills improved. C. How he managed his business well. 第二部分阅读理解(共两节,满分40 分) 第一节(共15小题;每小题 2 分,满分 30 分) 阅读下列短文,从每题所给的 A 、B、 C 和 D 四个选项中,选出最佳选项。 A Washington, D.C. Bicycle Tours Cherry Blossom Bike Tour in Washington, D.C. Duration: 3 hours This small group bike tour is a fantastic way to see the world-famous cherry trees with beautiful flowers of Washington, D.C. Your guide will provide a history lesson about the trees and the famous monuments where they blossom. Reserve your spot before availability –and the cherry blossoms –disappear! Washington Capital Monuments Bicycle Tour Duration: 3 hours (4 miles) Join a guided bike tour and view some of the most popular monuments in Washington, D.C. Explore the monuments and memorials on the National Mall as your guide shares unique facts and history at each stop. Guided tour includes bike, helmet, cookies and bottled water. Capital City Bike Tour in Washington, D.C. Duration: 3 hours Morning or Afternoon, this bike tour is the perfect tour for D.C. newcomers and locals looking to experience Washington, D.C. in a healthy way with minimum effort. Knowledgeable guides will entertain you with the most interesting stories about Presidents, Congress, memorials, and parks. Comfortable bikes and a smooth tour route (路线) make cycling between the sites fun and relaxing. Washington Capital Sites at Night Bicycle Tour Duration: 3 hours (7 miles) Join a small group bike tour for an evening of exploration in the heart of Washington, D.C. Get up close to the monuments and memorials as you bike the sites of Capitol Hill and the National Mall. Frequent stops are made for photo taking as your guide offers unique facts and history. Tour includes bike, helmet, and bottled water. All riders are equipped with reflective vests and safety lights. 21.Which tour do you need to book in advance? A.Cherry Blossom Bike Tour in Washington, D.C. B.Washington Capital Monuments Bicycle Tour. C.Capital City Bike Tour in Washington, D.C. D.Washington Capital Sites at Night Bicycle Tour. 22.What will you do on the Capital City Bike Tour? A. Meet famous people. B. Go to a national park. C. Visit well-known museums. D. Enjoy interesting stories. 23. Which of the following does the bicycle tour at night provide? A. City maps. B. Cameras C. Meals. D. Safety lights. B Good Morning Britain ’ Susanna Reid is used to morning, but she is cooking up a storm in her latest role delicious and nutritious meals on a tight budget. In Save Money: Good Food , she visits a different h chef Matt Tebbutt offers top tips on how to reduce food w under£5per family a day. And the Good Morning Brit put a lot of what she’ s learnt into practice in her Finn, 13, and Jack, 11. “ Welove Mexican churros, so I buy them on m takeaway restaurant,” she explains.“ I payo 26p a portion, because they are flour, water, sugar and but sometimes we’ re not aware how cheaply we ca The eight-part series ( 系列节目 ), Save Money: Go ITV ’ sSave Money: Good Health , which gave viewers vast range of health products on the market. With food our biggest weekly household expense, S different family each week. In tonight’ s Easte of some delicious inspiration on a budget. The team tran celebration with less expensive but still tasty recipes. 24. What do we know about Susanna Reid? A. She enjoys embarrassing her guests. C. She dislikes working early in the morning. D. She 25. How does Matt Tebbutt help Susanna? A. He buys cooking materials for her. C. He assists her in cooking matters. 26. What does the author intend to do in paragraph 4? A. Summarize the previous paragraphs.B C. Add some background information. D. 27. What can be a suitable title for the text? A. Keeping Fit by Eating Smart C. Making Yourself a Perfect Chef C Languages have been coming and going for thous has been less coming and a lot more going. When th gatherers, small, tightly knit ( 联系) groups deve independent of each other. Some language experts be world had just five to ten million people, they spoke perh Soon afterwards, many of those people started set languages too became more settled and fewer in numbe industrialisation, the development of the nation-state and education, especially globalisation and better communic have caused many languages to disappear, and domina and Chinese are increasingly taking over. At present, the world has about 6,800 languages. T hugely uneven. The general rule is that mild zones have many people, while hot, wet zones have lots, often spok around 200 languages; the Americas about 1,000; Africa 3,200, of which Papua New Guinea alone accounts for w 数 ) of speakers is a mere 6,000, which means that half fewer people than that. Already well over 400 of the total of 6,800 language only a few elderly speakers left. Pick, at random, Busuu speakers), Chiapaneco in Mexico (150), Lipan Apache i Wadjigu in Australia (one, with a question-mark): none o survival. 28. What can we infer about languages in hunter-gather A. They developed very fast.

(完整版)2018高考英语全国二卷真题

2018高考英语全国二卷真题 考 第二部分阅读理解(共两节,满分40分) A Summer Activities Students should read the list with their parents/carers, and select two activities they would like to do. Forms will be available in school and online for them to indicate their choices and return to school. Before choices are finalized, parents/ carer s will be asked to sign to confirm their child’s choices. 21. Which activity will you choose if you want to go camping? A. OUT. B. WBP. C. CRF. D. POT. 22. What will the students do on Tuesday with Mrs. Wilson? A. Travel to London. B. See a parade and fireworks. C. Tour central Paris. D. Visit the WWI battlefields.

23. How long does Potty about Potter last? A. Two days. B. Four days. C. Five days. D. One week. B Many of us love July because it’s the month when nature’s berries and stone fruits are in abundance. These colourful and sweet jewels form British Columbia’s fields are little powerhouses of nutritional protection. Of the common berries, strawberries are highest in vitamin C, although, because of their seeds, raspberries contain a little more protein (蛋白质), iron and zinc (not that fruits have much protein). Blueberries are particularly high in antioxidants (抗氧化物质). The yellow and orange stone fruits such as peaches are high in the carotenoids we turn into vitamin A and which are antioxidants. As for cherries (樱桃), they are so delicious who cares? However, they are rich in vitamin C. When combined with berries of slices of other fruits, frozen bananas make an excellent base for thick, cooling fruit shakes and low fat “ice cream”. For this purpose, select ripe bananas for freezing as they are much sweeter. Remove the skin and place them in plastic bags or containers and freeze. If you like, a squeeze of fresh lemon juice on the bananas will prevent them turning brown. Frozen bananas will last several weeks, depending on their ripeness and the temperature of the freezer. If you have a juicer, you can simply feed in frozen bananas and some berries or sliced fruit. Out comes a “soft-serve” creamy dessert, to be eaten right away. This makes a fun activity for a children’s party; they love feeding the fruit and frozen bananas into the top of the machine and watching the ice cream come out below. 24. What does the author seem to like about cherries? A. They contain protein. B. They are high in vitamin A. C. They have a pleasant taste. D. They are rich in antioxidants. 25. Why is fresh lemon juice used in freezing bananas? A. To make them smell better. B. To keep their colour. C. To speed up their ripening. D. To improve their nutrition. 26. What is “a juicer” in the last paragraph? A. A dessert. B. A drink. C. A container. D. A machine. 27. From which is the text probably taken? A. A biology textbook. B. A health magazine. C. A research paper. D. A travel brochure. C Teens and younger children are reading a lot less for fun, according to a Common Sense Media report published Monday. While the decline over the past decade is steep for teen readers, some data in the report shows that reading remains a big part of many children’s lives, and indicates how parents might help encourage more reading. According to the report’s key findings, “the proportion (比例) who say they ‘hardly ever’ read for fun has gone from 8 percent of 13-year-olds and 9 percent of 17-year-olds in 1984 to 22 percent and 27 percent respectively today.” The report data shows that pleasure reading levels for younger children, ages 2—8, remain largely the same.

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