2018年江西省中考英语试题及答案
2018江西中考
二、单项填空(8分)请阅读下面各题,从题中所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项,并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。(每小题1分)
28. The food is very delicious in that restaurant. We could go and ______ it?
A. sell
B. help
C. produce
D. try
29. Susan never gets upset when she has to wait in line. She is very ______ .
A. shy
B. honest
C. funny
D. patient
30.--Could I speak to Paul? I phoned _____.
--Sorry he is still in his meeting.
A. late
B. earlier
C. earliest
D. later
31. Sorry I'm late. I _______ with a friend and I completely forgot the time.
A. talk
B. am talking
C. was talking
D. will talk
32. I live near a big _______. It gets very noisy on match days.
A. hospital
B. store
C. bank
D. playground
33. -- Can students go online during lessons?
-- They can ________ it is for that lesson.
A. if
B. or
C. so
D. but
34. Kids have to take many after school classes. They _______ hard to study for good grades.
A. push
B. are pushed
C. are pushing
D. have pushed
35. We ________ a party for Kate It's supposed to be a surprise.
A. were having
B. had
C. will have
D. have had
三、完型填空(25分)
A)请先阅读下面短文,掌握其大意,然后从各小题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入相应空白处的最佳选项,
并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。(每小题1分)
There are purple clothes, purple handbags, purple bicycles, purple furniture, even purple computers! So purple is one of the most 36 colors today. But in the past, pur ple was a very expensive and unusual color. Let’s take a look at the rich 37 of the color purple.
Some scientists believe that the first plants to appear on Earth over 500 million years ago 38 looked purple, not green. Plants today are green because 39 use green chlorophyll (叶绿素) to produce energy. 40 these early plants probably used something called retinal, which is a dark purple color.
During the time of the roman Empire (37 BC-476 AD), it was very 41 to make purple dye (染料). The dye came from sea snails (海螺) .But10.000 dead sea snails 42 you just one gram (克)of purple dye… as well as a very bad smell! This 43 purple dye was called Tyrian purple, and it was the preferred 44 of emperors.
In 16th--century England, purple was 45 for the kings family members. Queen Elizabeth Is clothes were purple, but ordinary people were not allowed to 46 the color.
In 1856. William Perkin, an 18-year-old 47 student, noticed something strange while doing an experiment (实验). The chemicals (化学药品) he used to clean his instruments 48 with the chemicals he used in his experiment and produced a bright purple color. This 49 Perkin to start a company using this chemical mixture to make purple dye. The dye was much 50 than sea snail dye. Thanks to Perkin, now anyone can afford to wear purple clothes.
36. A. peaceful B. popular C. exciting D. serious
37. A. history B. style C. research D. product
38. A. gradually B. especially C. exactly D. probably
39. A. others B. they C. we D. some
40. A. And B. So C. But D. Until
41. A. dangerous B. common C. difficult D. strange
42. A. got B. passed C. wasted D. cost
43. A. basic B. harmful C. special D. perfect
44. A. color B. smell C. plant D. animal
45. A. even B. never C. seldom D. only
46. A. wear B. sell C. change D. make
47. A. geography B. science C. art D. math
48. A. compared B. mixed C. collected D. kept
49. A. survey B. suggestion C. discovery D. exam
50. A. healthier B. thicker C. cheaper D. darker
B)请先阅读下面短文,掌握其大意,然后用方框中所给词的适当形式填空,并将答案填写到答题卡的相应位置。每个词限用一次。(每小题1分)
The planet Mars is the closest and most similar planet to Earth. It is very 51 to scientists. For example, Mars has seasons with 52 weather, but other planets have the same temperatures all year round. Was there 53 on Mars?
To find out, scientists need 54 if Mars ever had water. In 2004. two robot explores (探测器), or 'rovers', called Spirit and Opportunity were sent to look for 55 of water. These rovers can drive over rocks 56 all kind of rough ground. They can also use cameras and send photos 57 to Earth. First, the two rovers found chemicals and patterns (图文) in the rocks that were probably made by water. Then, they moved to another area and 58 other rocks which may have been created by water. Now scientists think there was probably water on the planet long ago. Today 59 are still not sure if there was life on the mars. They 60 need more information to decide. The discoveries of the two rovers answered some old questions, but they also brought up many new ones.
四、阅读理解（40分）
A)请阅读下面短文,根据短文内容从每小题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项,并在答题卡上将选项涂黑。(每小题2分)
A
Science museum
(The Science of Survival, IMAX&SIMEX)
The Science Museum has something for everyone. Entry to the museum is free. Offer applies to IMAX 3D Cinema, SIMEX and The Science of Survival exhibition only.
IMAX ￡7.50
SIMEX ￡4.00
The Science of Survival ￡6.00
Opening Times: Daily 10: 00-18: 00 Visit Time: 2 hours
National Gallery
Opening Times:
Daily 10am-7pm Wednesday until 9 pm
Admission:
￡8 adults. ￡4 students, under 12s free
Tickets:
Available daily from 10 am
Telephone: 020 7747 2885
https://www.360docs.net/doc/ce10684365.html,
ZSL London Z
There are over 12, 000 amazing animals for you to see. These are just a few things which make a visit to ZSL London
Zoo a great day.
Ticket Price: ￡17.00
Opening Times: Daily 10: 00-17: 30
Visit Time: 4 hours
61. How much does the ticket to ZSL London Zoo cost?
A.￡8.00.
B.￡17.50.
C.￡17.00.
D.￡7.50.
62. Where is the Science of Survival exhibition held?
A. At the National gallery
B. At the Science Museum
C. At ZSL London zoo
D. At IMAX 3D Cinema
63. How long is the National Gallery open on Wednesday?
A. 4 hours
B. 8 hours
C. 7 hours
D. 11 hours
B
A young woman turns around and around quickly, and jumps high. In the background, a young girl reads a rejection (拒绝) letter from a ballet school. You have the wrong body for ballet, 'it says,' and at thirteen, you are too old. This was one of the most popular advertisements (广告) of 2014 and it describes American ballet Theatre's principal (主要的) dancer Misty Copeland.
This was not a real letter. But Copeland says it is very similar to letters from her childhood. While many dancers start at the age of three. Copeland only began to study ballet in 1995 as a thirteen-year-old. People often told her that she was too old, or that she didn't have the perfect body type (She is only 157 cm tall). Her family moved a lot, and it was sometimes difficult for her to attend ballet classes. But Copeland loved dancing and did not want to give up. She stayed with her ballet teacher during the week and spent time with her family only at the weekend. This was a difficult life, but she worked hard and won her first national competition when she was fourteen years old. Copeland joined the American Ballet Theatre in 2000 and performed in many ballets over the next few years. In 2007, she became a solo (单独的) performer, and in 2015 she became its principal dancer.
Copeland is now a dancer, author and Broadway performer. She also stars in the 2015 film A Ballerina's T ale. So what's next? According to Copeland, anything is possible: "My career (职业) really is just now beginning.'
64. How old was Copeland when she became the principal dancer?
A. 13
B. 14
C. 25
D. 33
65. Why was it difficult for Copeland to attend ballet classes?
A. Because her family moved a lot.
B. Because she was not a good dancer.
C. Because she had no invitation letter.
D. Because she had the wrong body type.
66. Which of the following is TRUE according to the passage?
A. Copeland became successful because of the advertisement.
B. Copeland had to spend a lot of time away from her parents.
C. Copeland won her first national competition as a solo performer.
D. Copeland has ended up her career as an actress on Broadway.
67 What's the writer’s opinion of Copeland?
A. Copeland sets an example who never gives up.
B. Copeland was too old to start ballet at thirteen.
C. Copeland has made her achievements by accident.
D. Copeland was lucky to get support from the ballet school.
C
Many people say dolphins are intelligent. They seem to be able to think, understand and learn things quickly. But are they as smart as humans, or are they more like cats and dogs? Dolphins use their brains quite differently from the way humans do. But scientists say dolphins and humans are very similar in some ways. How?
Like humans, every dolphin has its own "name". The name is a special whistle (哨声). Each dolphin chooses a specific (特有的) whistle for itself, usually by its first birthday Dolphins are like people in other ways, too. They "talk" to each other about a lot of things-such as their age, their feelings, and finding food. They also use a system of sounds and body language to communicate. Understanding dolphin conversation is not easy for humans. No one "speaks dolphin" yet, but some scientists are trying to learn.
Dolphins are also social animals. They live in groups called pods, and they often join others from different pods to play games and have fun--just like people. Scientists believe playing together is something only intelligent animals do.
Dolphins and humans are similar in another way: both species make plans for getting things they want. In the seas of southern Brazil, for example, dolphins use an intelligent plan to get food. When there are fish near a boat, dolphins signal (发信号) to the fishermen to put their nets in the water. Using this method, the men can catch a lot of fish. Why do dolphins help the men? There is an advantage for them they get to eat some of the fish that escape (逃脱) from the net.
68. What is a dolphin's “name”?
A. It is a kind of game.
B. It is a body sign.
C. It is a dolphin’s age.
D. It is a specific sound.
69. What does the underlined word "others" refer to?
A. Other fishes.
B. Other people
C. Other dolphins
D. Other games
70. What can we infer from the passage?
A. Some scientists can understand dolphins system of sounds.
B. Dolphins probably help fishermen by using their body language.
C Humans join dolphins' groups to get things we want.
D Dolphins can talk to humans about their age and their feelings.
71. What's the main idea of the passage?
A. Dolphins can communicate with each other at birth.
B. Dolphins are social animals because they play together.
C. Dolphins are smart and are like humans in some ways.
D. Dolphins help humans do many things like catching fish.
D
Every year on 15th October, over 200 million people around the world take part in Global Handwashing Day. But why do we have a day for something we do all the time? Well, research shows that not enough people often wash their hands with soap. Experts believe that this leads to the deaths of millions of people every year.
Sidibe, a public health expert says soap is the most beautiful invention in public health'. Washing your hands with soap can have a huge impact on reducing (减少) the spread of diseases. Handwashing with soap prevents babies from getting ill and keeps children healthy and in school.
However, washing hands with soap does not happen as often as you might think. This is partly because there aren't enough resources (资源) in poorer countries, but it's also because for many people, handwashing is simply not part of their everyday life. It's not easy to get people to change habits they learned in early childhood -- but this is what Global Handwashing Day wants to do.
In 2008, the Indian cricket team joined around 100 million Indian schoolchildren in washing their hands to promote (促进) the first ever Global Handwashing Day. Every year since then, many different events have been held around the world. In 2014. Global Handwashing Day was used in the fight against Ebola, a very serious disease, with events held in affected (受感染的) African countries.
Today, local and national leaders continue to use the day to spread the message about the importance of clean hands. The hope is that handwashing becomes a necessary part of people's lives and improves the health of millions around the world.
72. Who started Global Handwashing Day?
A. Public health experts.
B. The Indians.
C. African schoolchildren.
D. Government leaders.
73. What does the underlined word "impact" mean?
A. Danger.
B. Influence.
C. Background.
D. Problem.
74. What's the main idea of the last paragraph?
A. Washing hands with soap is good for public health.
B. Washing hands with soap doesn't become part of people's lives.
C. People are holding many different events to fight against diseases.
D. People all over the world are encouraged to wash hands with soap.
75. What would be the best title for the passage?
A. Learning to Use Soap.
B. Fighting Against Diseases.
C. Living a Healthy Life.
D. Changing Your Habits.
B)请先阅读下面短文,掌握其大意然后根据短文内容从下面方框内的七个选项中选择五个还原到文中,使短文意思通顺、结构完整,并在答题卡上将其序号涂黑。(每小题2分)
Is there a connection between music and language? According to recent studies, the answer is yes: 76 Here, we look at two examples
A recent study by researcher Kraus shows that playing a musical instrument can improve a person's hearing ability.
77 The people in the first group were musicians, while those in the second group had no musical training. The musicians were able to hear the talking person more clearly.
78 Think about violinists in an orchestra (管弦乐团). When the violinists play with the group, they hear their own instrument and many others, too. But the violinists must listen closely to what they are playing, and pay no attention to the other sounds. In this way, musicians are able to focus on certain sounds, even in a room with lots of noise.
Schlaug, a doctor at Harvard Medical School, works with stroke (中风) patients. Because of their illness, these people cannot say their names, addresses, or other information normally. However, they can still sing. 79 Why does this work? Schlaug isn't sure. Music seems to make different parts of the brain work, including the damaged (损坏的) parts. This might help patients to use that part of the brain again.
Music improves concentration (注意力), memory, listening skills, and our overall language abilities. 80 Playing an instrument or singing can help us do better in school and keep our brain sharp (敏锐的) as we get older. Music is not only enjoyable, it's also good for us in many other ways.
五、补全对话(5分)
请阅读下面对话,根据对话内容从方框中选择恰当的句子填入空白处,使对话通顺、合理，意思完整,并在答题卡上将其序号涂黑。(每空一句,每小题1分)
(Sandra and Luke plan their trip to Cape Town. S=Sandra L=Luke)
S:OK,that' s the flight(航班).Let’s look for a hotel now. 81
L: Three nights--Friday, Saturday and Sunday. Are there any hotels near the airport?
S: Yes, there are. But they are expensive. Just a minute… no, there aren't any cheap hotels near the airport. They are all expensive. 82
L: Wow! Well, what about a youth hostel(青年旅社)? Is there a youth hostel near the airport?
S: OK, let's see. I don't think so no, there isn't. I don't like youth hostels. 83
L: OK. Let’s look in the city centre. Are there any chea p hotels there?
S: Yes, of course there are
L: Well, that's good. And is there a bus to the city centre?
S: A bus from the airport? Yes, there is. 84 There isn't a train, but that's OK.
L: And there are taxis, too.
S: 85 OK, so let's look at these hotels.
六、书面表达(15分)
假如国外中学生来你校进行为期一周的交流学习,期间计划参加一项中国传统文化的主题活动,为此向你们征求活动方案(plan)请你根据下面表格中的信息提示,写一篇英语短文,介绍你提供的活动方案,内容包括:茶或者民乐介绍,活动安排以及与之相关的理由。
要求:1.从表格中任选一个主题,合理安排活动;
2.短文条理清楚,行文连贯,内容可适当发挥;
3.短文中不能出现真实的人名和地名;
4.词数不少于80,开头和结尾已给出,不计入总词数。
Hello, friends. I've got a plan for you which may help you learn about Chinese culture. First of all, I'd like to introduce _________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________________
Hope you will have a good time.
2018年江西中考英语试题及答案
参考答案
一、听力测试(共27小题,每小题1分,共27分
1-5 ABACA 6-10 CBBAC 11-15 BCABB 16-22 ABCCBAB
23. on Monday 24. levels 25 Room 16/ room 16 26. coffee
27. an hour/ one hour/1 hour
二、单项填空(共8小题,每小题1分,共8分)
28-31 DDBC 32-35 DABC
三、完形填空(共25小题,每小题1分,共25分)
A) 36-40 BADBC 41-45 CACAD 46-50 ABBCC
B) 51. interesting 52. different 53. life 54. to know
55. signs 56. and 57. back 58. found
59. they 60. really
四、阅读理解(共20小题,每小题2分,共40分)
61-63 CBD 64-67 DABA 68-71 DCBC 72-75 BBDA
76-80 CGEFA
五、补全对话(共5小题,每小题1分,共5分)
81-85 DGEFA
六、书面表达(15分)
Possible Version One:
Hello, friends. I've got a plan for you which may help you learn about Chinese culture. First of all, I'd like to introduce tea. It has a long history. It is said that Shen Nong discovered it as a drink. T ea is one of the most popular drinks in China. So we will have some interesting activities about it for you.
On Saturday morning, you are going to visit a big farm where you can learn about tea processing. On Saturday afternoon, you are going to a tea house after dinner where you can watch a tea art performance.
Why do we plan a visit to a tea house for you? Because you can lean a lot more about tea culture there. You will see a young lady in a Chinese traditional dress who shows you how a cup of tea is made with tea sets, You can enjoy it and relax yourselves while listening to pieces of traditional folk music.
Hope you will have a good time.
Possible Version Two:
Hello, friends. I've got a plan for you which may help you learn about Chinese culture. First of all, I'd like to introduce Chinese folk music. We have many famous pieces of music such as Jasmine Flowers and Gaoshan Liushui. We have erhu, dizi and many other different musical instruments. So we will have some interesting activities about it for you.
You are going to talk musical instrument classes on Friday afternoon and our music teachers are going to teach you how to play musical instruments in the music rooms. On Saturday night, you are going to attend a folk music concert in the school hall.
Why will we hold a concert for you? There are talented students from our school who can play very well. It's a good chance for you to enjoy the beauty of some famous pieces of folk music and you will surely lose yourselves in them.
Hope you will have a good time.
2018江西中考英语真题解析
江西省2018年中等学校招生考试 英语试题卷 说明： 1. 全卷满分120分，考试时间120分钟。 2. 请将答案写在答题卡上，否则不给分。 一、听力测试（27分） A）请听下面8段对话。每段对话后有以小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。听完每段对话后，你都将有10秒钟的时间回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话读两遍。（每小题1分） (2018·江西)1. What would the girl like to buy? A. A phone. B. A camera C. A watch. (2018·江西)2. Where is Linda? A. In the laboratory. B. In the library. C. In the bookstore. (2018·江西)3. How's the weather today? A. Cold B. Warm C. Cool. (2018·江西)4. Who is playing a video game with Jack? A. His brother B. His sister C. His cousin. (2018·江西)5. What's the doctor's advice? A. Taking more exercise. B. Taking some medicine. C. Drinking some milk. (2018·江西)6. Why is Jane crying? A. Because she is hungry. B. Because she needs sleep. C. Because her toy is lost. (2018·江西)7. When does the movie finish? A. At 8:30 B. At 9:30 C. At 10:30. (2018·江西)8. What does Mr. Smith mean? A. Kate works hard at football training. B. Kate should not stop football training. C. Kate gives a good reason for her decision. B）请听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。（每小题1分） 请听第1段材料，回答第9、10题。 (2018·江西)9. How does the girl feel now? A. Relaxed. B. Stressed C. Excited. (2018·江西)10. What does the girl do before an exam? A. She does more homework. B. She asks teachers for help. C. She listens to music. 请听第2段材料，回答第11、12小题。 (2018·江西)11. When did the man move to a new place? A. Last week. B. Last month. C. Last year. (2018·江西)12. Which of the following is true? A. The streets are dirty in the new area.
2018高考英语真题(全国卷Ⅰ(适用地区：河南、河北、山西、江西、湖北、湖南、广东、安徽、福建、山东))
全国卷Ⅰ（适用地区：河南、河北、山西、江西、湖北、湖南、广东、安徽、福建、山东） 绝密★启用前 2018年普通高等学校招生全国统一考试 英语 （考试时间：120分钟试卷满分：150分） 注意事项： 1. 答卷前，考生务必将自己的姓名、准考证号填写在答题卡上。 2. 回答选择题时，选出每小题答案后，用铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。如需改动，用橡皮擦干净后，再选涂其他答案标号。回答非选择题时，将答案写在答题卡上，写在本试卷上无效。 3. 考试结束后，将本试卷和答题卡一并交回。 第一部分听力(共两节，满分30分) 做题时，先将答案标在试卷上。录音内容结束后，你将有两分钟的时间将试卷上的答案转涂到答题卡上。 第一节（共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分） 听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。 例：How much is the shirt? A. ￡ 19. 15. B. ￡ 9. 18. C. ￡ 9. 15. 答案是C。 1.what will James do tomorrow ? A.Watch a TV program. B.Give a talk. C.Write a report. 2.What can we say about the woman? A.She's generour. B.She's curious. C.She's helpful. 3.When does the traif leave?https://www.360docs.net/doc/ce10684365.html, A.At 6:30. B.At8:30. C.At 10:30. 4.How does the wonar sRwr?m A.By car. B.On foot. C.By bike 5.What is the probable relationship between the speakers? A.Classmates. B.Teacher and student. C.Doctor and patient. 第二节（共15小题；每小题1.5分，满分22.5分） 听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。 听第6段材料，回答第6、7题。 6.What does the woman regret? A.Giving up her research. B.Dropping out of college.
2018年江西中考英语作文(6篇)
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2018年陕西中考英语真题[答案解析版]
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2018年高考英语全国III卷(有答案)
2018年普通高等学校招生全国统一考试(新课标全国III卷) 英语 第二部分阅读理解(共两节，满分40分) 第一节(共15小题；每小题2分，满分30分) A Welcome to Holker Hall & Garden Visitor Information How to Get to Holker By car: Follow brown signs on A590 from. J36, M6. Approximate travel times: Windermere--20 minutes, Kendal--25 minutes, Lancaster-- 45 minutes, Manchester-- l hour 30minutes By rail: the nearest station is Cark-in-Cartmel with trains to Carnforth. Lancaster and Preston for connections to major cities & airports. Opening times Sunday-Friday (closed on Saturday) 11:00 am-4;00 pm, 30 March-2nd November. Admission Charges Hall & Gardens Gardens Adults: ￡12.00 ￡8.00 Gropes: ￡9.00 Special Events Producers Market 13th April Join us to taste a variety of fresh local food and drinks. Meet the producers and get some excellent recipe ideas. Holker Garden Festival 30th May The event celebrates its 22nd anniversary with a great show of the very best of gardening, making it one of the most popular events in the gardening. National Garden Day 28th August Holker once again opens its gardens in aid of the disadvantaged. For just a small donation you can take a tour with our garden guide. Winter Market 8th November This is an event for all the family! Wander among a variety of shops selling gifts while enjoying a live music show and nice street entertainment. 21. How long does it probably take a tourist to drive to Holker from Manchester? A. 20 minutes. B. 25 minutes. C. 45 minutes. D. 90 minutes. 22. How much should a member of a tour group pay a visit to Hall & Gardens? A. ￡12.00. B. ￡9.00. C. ￡8.00 D. ￡5.50 23. Which event will you go to if you want to see a live music show? A. Producers Market. B. Holker Garden Festival C. National Garden Day. D. Winter Market B Cities, usually have a good reason for being where they are, like a nearby port or river. People settle in these places because they are easy to get to and naturally suited to communications and trade. New York City, for example, is near a large harbour at the mouth of the Hudson River. Over 300 years its population grew gradually from 800 people to 8 million. But not all cities develop slowly over a long period of time. Boom towns grow from nothing almost overnight. In 1896, Dawson, Canada, was unmapped wilderness(荒野). But gold was discovered there in 1897, and two years later, it was one of the largest cities in the West, with a population of 30,000. Dawson did not have any of the natural conveniences of cities like London or Paris. People went there for gold. They travelled over snow-covered mountains are sailed hundreds of miles up icy rivers. The path to Dawson was covered with thirty feet of wet snow that could fall without warning. An avalanche(雪崩) once closed the path, killing 63 people. For many who made it to Dawson, however, the rewards were worth the difficult trip. Of the first20000 people who dug for gold, 4,000 got rich. About 100 of these stayed rich men for the rest of their lives. But no matter how rich they were, Dawson was never comfortable. Necessities like food and wood were very expensive. But soon, the gold that Dawson depended on had all been found. The city was crowded with disappointed people with no interest in setting down, and when they heard there were new gold discoveries in Alaska, they left Dawson City as quickly as they had come. Today, people still come and go to see where the Canadian gold rush happened. Tourism is now the chief industry of Dawson City-its present population is 762. 24. What attracted the early settles New York City? A. Its business culture. B. Its small population. C. Its geographical position. D. Its favourable climate 25. What do we know about those who first dug for gold in Dawson? A. Two-thirds of them stayed there. B. One out of five people got rich. C. Almost everyone gave up. D. Half of them died. 26. What was the main reason for many people to leave Dawson? A. They found the city too crowded. B. They wanted to try their luck elsewhere. C. They were unable to stand the winter. D. They were short of food. 27. What is the text mainly about?
2018年中考英语试卷及答案
初中毕业考试 英语试卷 Ⅳ单项选择从A、B、C、D 四个选项中，找出可以填入相 --- Morning, teacher. ________. A. The same to you. B. You, too. C. Thank you. D. I’m sorry I can’t. 22. --- I don’t think teenagers should drive cars. --- _______. They aren’t serious enough. A. I agree B. I don’t agree C. I think D. I don’t think 23. ---If there are ______ people driving , there will be ______ air pollution. --- Yes, the air will be fresher. A. less; less B. less; fewer C. fewer; fewer D. fewer; less 24. ---There are many volunteers ______ are helping the children in Sichuan. --- And most of them are college students. A. which B. when C. whose D. who 25. --- You always spend only a little time on your study. You really _____ me down. --- I’m sorry, Mum. I won’t do that again. A. take B. put C. let D. look 26. --- Can you_____ your little brother? I’m busy now. --- OK. I’ll do it right now. A. wear B. put on C. dress D. in 27. --- All the clerks went home _____ Mr. Wang. Why? --- Because he had to finish his work. A. except B. besides C. without D. beside Some of the plastic bags can’t ______ after June1. --- Yes, people will use environmental bags instead. A. use B. be use C. be used D. are used 29. ---_____you _____ out the problem, Sam? --- Not yet, but I’m going to. A. Did, work B. Are, working C. Have, worked D. Will , work 30. --- Could you tell me _____ ? --- Because she likes her students very much. A. why so many students like the teacher B. why do so many students like the teacher
2018年江西省南昌市中考英语试卷(含答案)
江西省南昌市2018年初中毕业暨中等学校招生考试英语试卷
2018年江西省英语高考真题和答案
第二部分阅读理解(共两节，满分40分) 第一节(共15小题:每小题2分,满分30分) 阅读下列短文,从每题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中,选出最佳选项。 A Washington, D. C Bicycle Tours Cherry Blossom Bike Tour in Washington, D.C. Duration:3 hours This small group bike tour is a fantastic way to see the world famous cherry trees with beautiful flowers of Washington，D.C. Your guide will provide a history lesson about the trees and the famous monuments where they blossom. Reserve your spot before availability-and the cherry blossoms-disappear！ Washington Capital Monuments Bicycle Tour Duration: 3 hours(4 miles) Join a guided bike tour and view some of the most popular monuments in Washington, D.C. Explore the monuments and memorials on the National Mall as your guide shares unique facts and history at each stop. Guided tour includes bike, helmet, cookies and bottled water. Capital City Bike Tour in Washington, D. C Duration: 3 hours
(真题)2018-2019学年江西省中考英语试题(附答案)(附答案)
说明:1.全卷满分120分,考试时间120分钟。 2.请将答案写在答题卡上,否则不给分。 一、听力测试(27分) 现在是试听时间。请听一段对话,然后回答问题。 What is the boy going to buy? A. Some juice. B. Some oranges. C. Some apples. 答案是C A)请听下面8段对话。每段对话后有一小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项,并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。听完每段对话后,你都将有10秒钟的时间回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话读两遍。(每小题1分) 1. What would the girl like to buy? A. A phone. B. A camera. C. A watch. 2. Where is Linda? A. In the laboratory. B. In the library. C. In the bookstore. 3. How's the weather today? A. Cold. B. Warm. C. Cool. 4. Who is playing a video game with Jack? A. His brother. B. His sister. C. His cousin. 5. What's the doctor's advice? A. Talking more exercise. B. Taking some medicine. C. Drinking some milk. 6. Why is Jane crying? A. Because she is hungry. B. Because she needs sleep. C. Because her toy is lost.
2018年中考英语试题
2018 年英语中考试题及答案 第I卷 I．听力测试。（共30分） 第一节（每小题1.5分，共9分） 听一遍。根据你所听到的句子，从A、B、C三个选项中选出最恰当的答语，并把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。 1、A.Nice to meet you, too. B. Thank you. C. Goodbye. 2、A.Don’t worry! B. Good idea! C.Hurry up! 3、A. You’re welcome. B. It doesn’t matter. C. Take your time. 4、A.That’s right. B.Take it easy. C. With pleasure. 5、A.Sorry, I won’t. B. Well done. C. Here you are. 6、A.Never mind! B. What a pity! C. Have a good time! 第二节（每小题1.5分，共9分） 听一遍。根据你所听到的对话和问题，从A、B、C三个选项中选出正确答案，并把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。 7、A. By bike. B. By bus. C. On foot. 8、A. Grace. B. Alice. C. Paul. 9、A.In the library. B. In the museum. C. In the classroom. 10、A. Math. B. Chinese. C. Science. 11、A. Clever and lovely. B. Friendly and lovely. C. Friendly and clever. 12、A. At 8:00. B. At 9:00. C. At 10:00. 第三节（每小题1.5分，共6分）
2018年全国卷1高考英语答案
1 绝密★启用前 2018年普通高等学校招生全国统一考试 英 语 1-5 BCCBA 6-10BABCC 11-15ABAAC 16-20BCBCA 21-25ADDBC 26-30CDBCB 31-35CADBA 36-40BADGF 41-45BCADD 46-50CBDCB 51-55CACBA 56-60DBADA 61.longer 62.to see 63.dying 64.is 65.than 66.that \which 67.causes 68.strength 69.energetic 70.it \running During my last winter holiday, I went to the ∧countryside with my father to visit my grandparents. I find found a change there. The first time I went there, they were living in a small house with dogs, ducks, and another other animals. Last winter when I went here there again, they had a big separate house to raise dozens of chicken chickens . They also had a small pond which in where ∧或 they raised fish. My grandpa said last summer they earned quite a lot by sell selling the fish. I felt happily happy that their life had improved. At the end of our trip, I told my father that I planned to return for every two years, but and he agreed. 书面表达（略）
2018年全国高考英语试卷
英语 2018年高三试卷 英语 考试时间：____分钟 题型阅读理解简答题书面表达总分 得分 阅读理解（本大题共小题，每小题____分，共____分。） 第一节(共15小题:每小题2分,满分30分) 阅读下列短文,从每题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中,选出最佳选项。 A Washington, D. C Bicycle Tours Cherry Blossom Bike Tour in Washington, D.C. Duration:3 hours This small group bike tour is a fantastic way to see the world famous cherry trees with beautiful flowers of Washington，D.C. Your guide will provide a history lesson about the trees and the famous monuments where they blossom. Reserve your spot before availability-and the cherry blossoms-disappear！ Washington Capital Monuments Bicycle Tour Duration: 3 hours(4 miles) Join a guided bike tour and view some of the most popular monuments in Washington, D.C. Explore the monuments and memorials on the National Mall as your guide shares unique facts and history at each stop. Guided tour includes bike, helmet, cookies and bottled water. Capital City Bike Tour in Washington, D. C Duration: 3 hours Morning or Afternoon, this bike tour is the perfect tour for D. C. newcomers and locals looking to experience Washington, D.C. in a healthy way with minimum effort. Knowledgeable guides will entertain you with the most interesting stories about Presidents，Congress, memorials, and parks. Comfortable bikes and a smooth tour route(路线)make cycling between the sites fun and relaxing. Washington Capital Sites at Night Bicycle Tour
【真题】2018年江西省中考英语试题含答案解析(word版)(解析版)
2018年江西中考英语试题 一、听力测试 现在是试听时间。请听一段对话,然后回答问题。 What is the boy going to buy? A. Some juice. B. Some oranges. C. Some apples. 答案是 C A)请听下面8段对话。每段对话后有一小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项,并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。听完每段对话后,你都将有10秒钟的时间回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话读两遍。 1. What would the girl like to buy? A. A phone. B. A camera. C. A watch. 2. Where is Linda? A. In the laboratory. B. In the library. C. In the bookstore. 3. How's the weather today? A. Cold. B. Warm. C. Cool. 4. Who is playing a video game with Jack? A. His brother. B. His sister. C. His cousin. 5. What's the doctor's advice? A. Talking more exercise.
B. Taking some medicine. C. Drinking some milk. 6. Why is Jane crying? A. Because she is hungry. B. Because she needs sleep. C. Because her toy is lost. 7. When does the movie finish? A. At 8:30 B. At 9:30 C. At10:30 8. What does Mr. Smith mean? A. Kate works hard at football training. B. Kate should not stop football training. C. Kate gives a good reason for her decision. B)请听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项,并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。听每段对话或独白前,你将有时间阅读各个小题,每小题5秒钟;听完后,各小题给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。请听第1段材料,回答第9、10小题。 9. How does the girl feel now? A. Relaxed. B. Stressed. C. Excited. 10. What does the girl do before an exam? A. She does more homework. B. She asks teachers for help. C She listens to music. 请听第2段材料,回答第11、12小题。 11. When did the man move to a new place? A. Last week.