宁夏银川一中2019届高三第二次模拟考试英语试题附答案

宁夏银川一中2019届高三第二次模拟考试英语试题附答案
宁夏银川一中2019届高三第二次模拟考试英语试题附答案

绝密★启用前

2019年普通高等学校招生全国统一考试

英语试题卷

(银川一中第二次模拟考试)

注意事项:

1.答卷前,考生务必将自己的姓名、准考证号填写在答题卡上。

2.作答时,务必将答案写在答题卡上。写在本试卷及草稿纸上无效。

3.考试结束后,将本试卷和答题卡一并交回。

第一部分:听力理解(共两节。满分30分)

做题时,先将答案标在试卷上。录音内容结束后,你将有两分钟的时间将试卷上的答案转涂到答题卡上。第一节 (共5小题:每小题1.5分,满分7.5分)

听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项,并标在试卷的相应位置。听完每段对话后,你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。例:How much is the shirt ?

A.$19.15.

B.$9.18

C.$9.15

答案是C.

1. Which skirt will the man buy?

A. The green one.

B. The brown one.

C. The red one.

2. What does the man think of the car?

A. Cheap.

B. Old.

C. Nice.

3. Why can’t men do better in a computer company than women?

A. They are not as careful as women.

B. They are too strong.

C. Their hands are too big.

4. When is the concert going to start?

A. At 7:45.

B. At 7:30.

C. At 7:15.

5. Where does this conversation take place?

A. In a food store.

B. In a restaurant.

C. At a vegetable market.

第二节(共15小题;每小题1.5分,满分22.5分)

听下面5段对话或独白,每段对话或独白后有几个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项,并标在试卷的相应位置。听每段对话或独白前,你将有时间阅读各个小题,每小题5秒钟;听完后,各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。

听第6段材料,回答第6、7题。

6. What can we know about the woman?

A. She hasn’t been to Australia.

B. She is Australian.

C. She is Chinese.

7. Which is the best season to visit Australia?

A. Spring.

B. Autumn.

C. Summer.

听第7段材料,回答第8至10题。

8. What will be sent to the US by airmail?

A. A birthday gift.

B. Insurance list.

C. A small necklace.

9. Who will get the parcel?

A. The woman’s husband.

B. The woman’s d aughter.

C. The woman’s teacher.

10. How much will the woman pay?

A. Just 100 yuan.

B. Less than 100 yuan.

C. More than 100 yuan.

听第8段材料,回答第11至13题。

11. What is the woman tired of?

A. Using packing cases as seats.

B. Sitting on secondhand chairs.

C. Buying things at street markets.

12. What does the man worry about?

A. They cannot find new chairs.

B. New chairs are too expensive.

C. Old chairs are not comfortable.

13. When does the market open?

A. On Thursdays.

B. On Sundays.

C. On Saturdays.

听第9段材料,回答第14至16题。

14. What is the man most likely to be?

A. A tourist traveling to a seaside town.

B. A reporter from a newspaper press.

C. A clerk of the traveling agency.

15. What was the woman satisfied with?

A. The room of the hotel that they stayed in.

B. The distance between the hotel and the beach.

C. The time when they arrived at the seaside town.

16. How often does the woman go out for holidays?

A. At least twice a year.

B. At least once a year.

C. At least once a month.

听第10段材料,回答第18至20题。

17. What’s the passage mainly about?

A. Air pollution outside.

B. Indoor air pollution.

C. The disease caused by the polluted air.

18. Where did some of the worst indoor air pollution happen?

A. In super countries.

B. In developed countries.

C. In places where wood and coal were used for cooking.

19. How many diseases could be caused by breathing harmful indoor air according to the passage?

A. 5.

B. 6.

C. 7.

20. What would be probably talked about next?

A. Causes of indoor air pollution.

B. Problems of indoor air pollution.

C. Ways to solve the problem of indoor air pollution.

第二部分:阅读理解(共两节,满分40分)

第一节(共15小题;每小题2分, 满分30分)

阅读下列短文,从短文后每题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中,选出最佳选项,并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。

A

Ad. 1

Language in use

Place: Pula Pula, Tianze Lu, Oriental Seven Colours Plaza, Chaoyang District La Nuit Francaise

21. Which of the following is NOT true of Ad. 1 and Ad. 3?

A. The two parties will be held on the same day.

B. The two parties will be held at the same time.

C. The entrance fees of the two parties will not be charged.

D. Some old music will be played at the parties.

22. Which of the following is intended for the Chinese learners?

A. Marco V.

B. La Nuit Francaise.

C. Language in use.

D. The "worst" party.

23. We can infer that______.

A. Marco V is a newly established band

B. La Nuit Francaise may be French words

C. the "worst" party will attract a lot of college students

D. you will enjoy free drink at April fool’s party

B

One night I received a Facebook message from Laura, a former classmate. “Hey Steve,” s he said, “I know you’ve always been an animal lover. I’ve just had a baby and I can’t keep my mini pig.”

Being fond of animals, I knew I wanted the pig. I just had to figure out how to make it happen.

I lived in a two-bedroom single-level house in Georgetw on, Ontario. It’s tough to bring a pig back to the house I share with two dogs, two cats, and my lifelong partner.

But I was not letting that pig go. So I told Laura I’d take the animal. When I got home with the pig, I hid her in the bedroom, and began to prepare a dinner for Alisha —her favourite bacon cheeseburgers. It’s better to make her happy before introducing the new member to her.

When I led her to the bedroom and showed her the surprise, Alisha stood in the doorway like a statue. It took her a few seconds to know what I had done. She complained about my unreasonable action. She insisted there was no more room in the house.

I knew I was wrong, but I hoped I could smooth things over. Soon enough, the lovely pig did the smoothing for me. Never had we felt such joy as she brought to us. We got her a name “Esther”.

Esther’s arrival changed our lives. A few weeks later, we decided to stop eating bacon. We figured it was our turn to try to change the world for other animals. A few months later, we moved to a farm where we cared for abandoned animals — so far, six rabbits, six goats, two sheep, one horse, three cows and three chickens.

24. Who does the underlined phrase “my lifelong partner” in Paragraph 2 refer to?

A. Laura.

B. Steve.

C. Alisha.

D. Esther.

25. Why did the author cook Alisha a meal?

A. To please her to accept the pig.

B. To make an apology to her.

C. To celebrate Esther’s arrival.

D. To show off his cooking skills.

26. What was Alisha’s reaction the moment she saw Esth er?

A. She burst into tears.

B. She showed interest in her.

C. She quarreled with Steve.

D. She was frozen for a while.

27. What is the best title for the text?

A. A Small Pig Making a Big Difference

B. An Abandoned Pig Finding a Warm Home

C. A Little Pig Bringing Happiness to a Family

D. A Lovely Pig Removing a Couple’s Disagreement

C

Fabien Cousteau was born with deep love for the ocean. His grandfather and his father were ocean explorers and documentary filmmakers. Fabien spent his early years on his grandfather's ships. Today, Fabien follows in his family's footsteps to protect the planet's endangered ocean life. With his vast knowledge and experience, he tries to strike a balance between environmental problems and market economies.

Fabien is well known for his study of sharks. During 2000-2002, he created a TV special called Attack of the Mystery Shark based on the shark attacks that occurred along the New Jersey shoreline in the summer of 1916. Then in 2003-2006, with the help of a large crew, Fabien created a shark submarine (潜艇) that enabled him to put himself inside the shark world, providing people with a rare view of the mysterious and often misunderstood creatures.

For the next four years (2006-2010), Fabien was part of a series called, Ocean Adventures, which offered a rare look into some of the most fantastic ocean species (物种) and environments.

In 2010, Fabien started Plant A Fish, a nonprofit project for children to help restore local water ecosystems by replanting key ocean species. Save the world, one fish at a time. The project is still in progress now and its final goal is to plant 1 billion “fish” worldwide.

From June 1 to July 2, 2014, Fabien and his team spent 31 days underwater to research how climate change and pollution are affecting the oceans. Fabien's Mission 31 broke new ground by going deeper, longer and further, exposing (显露) the world to the adventure and the mystique (神秘) of what lies beneath.

Fabien is currently working on a documentary film about the adventures of Mission 31, as well as building an Ocean Learning Center to provide children around the world with the opportunity to learn about oceans and engage with ocean explorers directly through social media.

28.What is Not Fabien’s job?

A. Ocean explorer

B. Documentary filmmaker

C. Environmentalist

D. Media manager

29. How is Paragraph 2 developed?

A. By providing facts.

B. By offering analyses.

C. By making comparisons.

D. By drawing conclusions.

30. We can learn from the text that ________.

A. Fabien's “Plant A Fish” project has already achieved its final goal

B. Fabien's Mission 31 broke the records of former ocean explorations

C. Fabien's TV special about sharks is based on his childhood experiences

D. It took Fabien four years to produce Ocean Adventures all on his own

31. In which part of a website can we read the text?

A. Modern Technology.

B. Space Exploration.

C. Outstanding Figures.

D. Fantastic Wildlife.

D

Over the years, cheerleading has taken two primary forms: game-time cheerleading and competitive cheerleading. Game-time cheerleaders’ main goal is to entertain the crowd and lead them with team cheers, which should not be considered a sport. However, competitive cheerleading is more than a form of entertainment. It is really a competitive sport.

Competitive cheerleading includes lots of physical activity. The majority of the teams require a certain level of tumbling (翻腾) ability. It’s a very common thing for gymnasts, so it’s easy for them to go into competitive cheerleading. Usually these cheerleaders integrate lots of their gymnastics experience including their jumps, tumbling, and overall energy. They also perform lifts and throws. This is where the “fliers” are thrown in the air, held by “bases” in different positions that require strength and working with other teammates.

Competitive cheerleading is also an activity that is governed by rules under which a winner can be declared. It is awarded points for technique, creativity and sharpness. Usually the more difficult the action is, the better the score is. That’s why cheerleaders are trying to experience great difficulty in their performance.

Besides, there is also a strict rule of time. The whole performance has to be completed in less than three minutes and fifteen seconds, during which the cheerleaders are required to stay within a certain area. Any performance beyond the limit of time is invalid.

Another reason for the fact that competitive cheerleading is one of the hardest sports is that it has more reported injuries. According to some research, competitive cheerleading is the number one cause of serious sports injuries to women. Emergency room visits for it are five times the number than for any other sport, partially because cheerleaders don’t use protective equipment. Smiling cheerleaders are thrown into the air and move down into the arms of the teammates, which may easily cause injuries. Generally, these injuries affect all areas of the body, including wrists, shoulders, ankles, head, and neck.

There can be no doubt that competitive cheerleading is a sport with professional skills. Hopefully, it will appear in the Olympics since cheerleaders are just as athletic and physically fit as those involved in the more accepted sports. It should be noted that it is a team sport and even the smallest mistake made by one teammate can bring the score of the entire team down. So without working together to achieve the goal, first place is out of reach.

32. What is the main purpose of competitive cheerleading?

A. To compare skills of participants.

B. To make the audience feel amused.

C. To attract more people to watch events.

D. To cheer up the competitors on the court.

33. The underlined word “integrate” in Paragraph 2 probably means “______”.

A. examine

B. combine

C. identify

D. replace

34. We can learn from the passage that competitive cheerleading ______.

A. lacks necessary guidelines to follow

B. enjoys greater popularity than other sports

C. requires more designed actions than gymnastics

D. has a relatively high rate of damage to the body

35. Which of the following shows the structure of the passage?

I: Introduction P: Point Sp: Sub-point (次要点) C: Conclusion

A B C D

第二节(共5小题,每小题2分,满分10分)

根据短文内容,从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。

Sometimes it can be hard to recognize a true friend, one who is loyal(忠诚的)and one who is worth keeping by your side. The suggestions provided in this article will help to guide you in working out which friends are likely to be true.

Be able to trust your friends. You should be able to trust true friends and they should return this trust. Your friends tell you secrets that no one else knows. Let you share secrets. Ask you for advice.36.__________ However, if your friends hide things from you and act secretive, this could be a sign that they do not trust you, but it could also mean your friends keep to themselves or don’t like to reveal too much about themselves.

Consider comfort. How comfortable do your friends feel when they are around you? Watch them, are they being themselves or are they timid (胆怯的)around you? 37.__________True friendships can take

a while to develop, but if your friends are true, they should feel comfortable around you.

38.__________This is not meant in a romantic way, but consider whether your friends are comfortable with the touch. If your friends are fine with hugging you, leaning on you, resting their heads on your shoulder and so forth, then you can judge they love you.

Think about loyalty. True friends are always there for one another. If you are in need of a helping hand, your true friends should be there to offer it to you. 39.__________You can trust friends with anything, knowing that they will be loyal and will not let your secrets out.

Look at how you fight. Nearly all best friends fight; so if you and your friend have a little dispute(争论), don't sweat it! 40.__________. They will not tell each ot her’s secrets and they still care about each other.

A. Consider the touch barrier.

B. Consider how you insult each other.

C. They should know that you are not serious.

D. These are sure signs that your friends trust you.

E. Are they acting fake—perhaps hiding an insecurity?

F. True friends should not get one another into trouble.

G. True friends will remain faithful and find their way through a fight.

第三部分语言知识运用(共两节,满分45分)

第一节(共20小题;每小题1.5分,满分30分)

阅读下面短文,从短文后所给各题的四个选项(A、B、C和D)中,选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项,并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。

My first-grade teacher, Mr. Gunderson, once told my class a story. A father is killed in a car accident and the son is 41 hurt. But when the boy arrives at the 42 , the doctor on duty says, “I can’t 43 surgery on this patient. This is my son!”Mr. Gunderson asked, “Who is the doctor?” Hands went up and my classmates shouted out

44 , but they didn’t arrive at the correct answer. Mr. Gunderson didn’t let me 45 because he knew it would be very easy for me to understand that the surgeon was the boy’s

46 . I suppose that Mr. Gunderson’s 47 would be a lot easier for today’s first-graders.

Being a doctor at that time, my mother was considered very 48 because female doctors were rare then. 49 , to my sister and me, she was and is just Mom. When we were kids, we came home from school to a 50 , who watched us until our parents came home. Mom took Friday off so she could spend more time with us, and we could tell that she felt 51 about not being home more often.

My younger sister and I 52 at a fairly young age that this was Mom’s weak spot, and we 53 it mercilessly whenever we wanted a new toy or snacks. I wish I had

54 doing that the first time Mom told me about one of her 55 who had died, but I’m sure I did n’t. I can’t imagine what it’s like to spend all day taking care of other people’s 56 children, some of whom are not going to 57 it, and then come home to find that your own kids are acting like that. We were just like 58 brats (顽童)then. I suppose she could have found our guilty weak spots to make us 59 , but she never did. I think I’d better 60 her for that.

41.A. simply B. seriously C. frequently D. gradually

42.A. cafeteria B. station C. hospital D. room

43.A. deliver B. represent C. clarify D. perform

44.A. guesses B. instructions C. explanations D. suggestions

45.A. answer B. conclude C. question D. demand

46.A. stepfather B. grandpa C. mother D. uncle

47.A. trick B. puzzle C. theory D. principle

48.A. special B. wealthy C. average D. urgent

49.A. Therefore B. However C. Otherwise D. Thus

50.A. member B. passenger C. passer-by D. baby-sitter

51.A. angry B. curious C. cautious D. sorry

52.A. made B. designed C. figured D. worked

53.A. kept away from B. took possession

of C. settled down

to

D. took advantage

of

54.A. stopped B. continued C. considered D. imagined

55.A. colleagues B. patients C. relatives D. acquaintances

56.A. sick B. educated C. naughty D. respectful

57.A. mention B. favor C. make D. require

58. A. honored B. distinguished C. spoiled D. defeated

59.A. support B. obey C. consult D. respond

60.A. judge B. hate C. envy D. thank

第二节(10个小题;每小题1.5分,满分15分)

阅读下面材料,在空白处填人适当的内容(1个单词)或括号内单词的正确形式。

More and more public schools in America make it a rule that students must finish a certain amount of community service 61 they are allowed to graduate from high school. They work on projects like making the environment better or 62 (feed) homeless people.

Many school systems in the United States now ask students 63 (do) some kinds of community service as part of their studies. Students involved in service projects help 64 (they) as well as their communities. They learn about the needs of people and aid 65 (organize).For this reason, holidays 66 (become) the prime period for volunteer work so far. Volunteers get no pay, but experts point out that it is 67 excellent opportunity to learn and practice new skills.

According to the statistics, more than 60% of young Americans have participated 68 different kinds of community service, such as cooking for homeless people, or painting old buildings, etc. Some students like to do their volunteer work in 69 (centre) parts of America, but the majority of teens prefer to do it in their hometowns. Tom, a 16-year-old middle school student in California, often 70 (do) community service in a local hospital. He works 16 hours every week either receiving calls at the information desk, or helping push patients back to their wards(病房).

第四部分写作(共两节,满分35分)

第一节短文改错(共10小题:每小题1分,满分10分)

假定英语课上老师要求同桌之间交换修改作文,请你修改你同桌写的以下作文。文中共有10处语言错误,每句中最多有两处.每处错误仅涉及一个单词的增加、删除或修改。

增加:在缺词处加一个漏字符号( ) 并在其下面写出该加的词。

删除:把多余的词用斜线(\)划掉。

修改:在错的词下划一横线,并在该词下面写出修改后的词。

注意:1.每处错误及其修改均仅限一词;

2.只允许修改10处,多者(从第11处起)不计分。

Dear Tom,

How are you getting along? I don’t think this is a good idea to travel a lot and visit as many place as possible. Last July Bell paid a visit on Europe. Europe was very beautiful, but his holiday wasn’t very nicely. He visited several countries, and was in each of the countries for only three days. He visited a good many places of interest, but was always in hurry. Though he returned from Europe, he was very tired. So I suggest that you spent your holiday in a different way. We had better travel with a friend to one country and to visit only one city at a time. You’ll be able to have a good time.

Yours sincerely,

John

第二节书面表达(满分25分)

请根据你对下面这幅图的理解,

写一篇100字左右的英语短文。

请包括以下内容:

1.简要描述图画内容

2.联系实际说说自己的看法和建议

提示:smog 雾霾

As is vividly shown in the picture, a tiny man___________________________________

________________________________________________________________________________________________ ________________________________________________________________________________________________ ________________________________________________________________________________________________ ________________________________________________________________________________________________ ________________________________________________________________________________________________ ________________________________________________________________________________________________ ________________________________________________

____________________________________________________________________

银川一中2019届高三第二次模拟英语参考答案

一、听力 1-5 BACAB 6-10 AAACB 11-15 ABCCB 16-20 BBCBC

二、阅读理解 21—23 CC B 24—27CADA 28—31 DABC 32-35ABDC

三、七选五 36—40D E AFG

四、完形填空 41-45 BCDAA 46-50 CBABD 51-55 DCDAB 56-60 ACCBD

五、语法填空

61.before 62.feeding 63.to do 64.themselves https://www.360docs.net/doc/cc5159432.html,anizations 66.have become 67.an 68.in 69.central 70.does

六、短文改错

Dear Tom,

How are you getting along? I don’t think this is a good idea to travel a lot and visit as many place as possible. Last July Bell paid a visit on Europe. Europe was very beautiful, but his holiday

wasn’t very nicely. He visited several countries, and was in each of the countries for only three days. He visited a good many places of interest, but was always in^ hurry. Though he returned from

Europe, he was very tired. So I suggest that you spent your holiday in a different way. We had better travel with a friend to one c ountry and to visit only one city at a time. You’ll be able to have a good time.

Yours sincerely,

John

七、写作

As is vividly shown in the picture, a tiny man living in the city is standing there wearing a mask, terrified by the heavy smog, which looks like a huge frightening monster.

What the picture mirrors is clearly heavy smog and severe air pollution. Confronted with potential risks of sickness, people are always forced to wear masks in order to avoid breathing poisonous air. With smog getting increasingly serious, environmental protection has become an urgent issue for human beings. As a saying goes, great things may be done by mass effort. For one thing, our government should develop more green and energy saving ways to lower the emission of polluted air. For another, every single, person should raise their awareness of environmental protection and use more public transport. Only if we spare no effort to protect our environment, can we enjoy a greener and better life.

it places to is nice When/As/After

a spend You

宁夏银川一中2019届高三第一次模拟考试数学(理)

2019年普通高等学校招生全国统一考试 理科数学试题卷 (银川一中第一次模拟考试) 注意事项: 1 ?答卷前,考生务必将自己的姓名、准考证号填写在答题卡上。 2 ?作答时,务必将答案写在答题卡上。写在本试卷及草稿纸上无效。 3 ?考试结束后,将本试卷和答题卡一并交回。 、选择题:本大题共 12小题,每小题5分,共60分.在每小题给出的四个选项中,只有一项是 符合题目要求的. i .设集合 A =「0,2,468,i0?, B = \ x2x-3 “,则 A B = A.人8? B. ^0,2,6? C.「0,2^ D.「2,4,6^ z 2 +3 2.复数 z =1 —2i ,则 - z-1 A . 2i B . -2 C. -2i D .2 3?高铁、扫码支付、共享单车、网购被称为中国的“新四大发明”,为评估共享单车的使用情况, F 面给出的指标中可以用来评估共享单车使用量的稳定程度的是 A . X i , X 2 , , X n 的平均数 B . X i , X 2 , , X n 的标准差 C. X i , X 2 , , X n 的最大值 D ? X i , X 2 , , X n 的中位数 4?已知等比数列{a n }中,有a 3a ii =4a 7,数列{g }是等差数列,其前n 项和为S ., 绝密★启用前 选了 n 座城市作实验基地, 这n 座城市共享单车的使用量 (单位:人次/天)分别为X i , X 2 , , X n , A . 26 B . 52 C T .78 2 T D . 104 5.如图,在 ABC 中,AN 二 NC , P 是BN 上 3 1 一点,若 AP =tAB — AC ,则实数t 的值为 3 2 r 2 c 1 3 A.— B . C . D (5 3 5 6 4 且6二a ?,则弘二

宁夏银川市第一中学2019-2020学年高一期末考试数学试卷

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